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**rotan**on Conjunction Fallacy · 2016-03-26T05:19:42.883Z · score: 0 (0 votes) · LW · GWBut what of the fact that any singular event, is actually a conjunction of the probabilities of that event and the negation of the alternative event, so A is really equivalent to a conjunction of A and not B. Given this can it really be said that A is more likely than A and B?