Excluding the Supernatural

post by Eliezer Yudkowsky (Eliezer_Yudkowsky) · 2008-09-12T00:12:37.000Z · LW · GW · Legacy · 148 comments

Occasionally, you hear someone claiming that creationism should not be taught in schools, especially not as a competing hypothesis to evolution, because creationism is a priori and automatically excluded from scientific consideration, in that it invokes the "supernatural".

So... is the idea here, that creationism could be true, but even if it were true, you wouldn't be allowed to teach it in science class, because science is only about "natural" things?

It seems clear enough that this notion stems from the desire to avoid a confrontation between science and religion.  You don't want to come right out and say that science doesn't teach Religious Claim X because X has been tested by the scientific method and found false.  So instead, you can... um... claim that science is excluding hypothesis X a priori.  That way you don't have to discuss how experiment has falsified X a posteriori.

Of course this plays right into the creationist claim that Intelligent Design isn't getting a fair shake from science—that science has prejudged the issue in favor of atheism, regardless of the evidence.  If science excluded Intelligent Design a priori, this would be a justified complaint!

But let's back up a moment.  The one comes to you and says:  "Intelligent Design is excluded from being science a priori, because it is 'supernatural', and science only deals in 'natural' explanations."

What exactly do they mean, "supernatural"?  Is any explanation invented by someone with the last name "Cohen" a supernatural one?  If we're going to summarily kick a set of hypotheses out of science, what is it that we're supposed to exclude?

By far the best definition I've ever heard of the supernatural is Richard Carrier's:  A "supernatural" explanation appeals to ontologically basic mental things, mental entities that cannot be reduced to nonmental entities.

This is the difference, for example, between saying that water rolls downhill because it wants to be lower, and setting forth differential equations that claim to describe only motions, not desires.  It's the difference between saying that a tree puts forth leaves because of a tree spirit, versus examining plant biochemistry.  Cognitive science takes the fight against supernaturalism into the realm of the mind.

Why is this an excellent definition of the supernatural?  I refer you to Richard Carrier for the full argument.  But consider:  Suppose that you discover what seems to be a spirit, inhabiting a tree: a dryad who can materialize outside or inside the tree, who speaks in English about the need to protect her tree, et cetera.  And then suppose that we turn a microscope on this tree spirit, and she turns out to be made of parts—not inherently spiritual and ineffable parts, like fabric of desireness and cloth of belief; but rather the same sort of parts as quarks and electrons, parts whose behavior is defined in motions rather than minds.  Wouldn't the dryad immediately be demoted to the dull catalogue of common things?

But if we accept Richard Carrier's definition of the supernatural, then a dilemma arises: we want to give religious claims a fair shake, but it seems that we have very good grounds for excluding supernatural explanations a priori.

I mean, what would the universe look like if reductionism were false?

I previously defined the reductionist thesis as follows: human minds create multi-level models of reality in which high-level patterns and low-level patterns are separately and explicitly represented.  A physicist knows Newton's equation for gravity, Einstein's equation for gravity, and the derivation of the former as a low-speed approximation of the latter.  But these three separate mental representations, are only a convenience of human cognition.  It is not that reality itself has an Einstein equation that governs at high speeds, a Newton equation that governs at low speeds, and a "bridging law" that smooths the interface.  Reality itself has only a single level, Einsteinian gravity.  It is only the Mind Projection Fallacy that makes some people talk as if the higher levels could have a separate existence—different levels of organization can have separate representations in human maps, but the territory itself is a single unified low-level mathematical object.

Suppose this were wrong.

Suppose that the Mind Projection Fallacy was not a fallacy, but simply true.

Suppose that a 747 had a fundamental physical existence apart from the quarks making up the 747.

What experimental observations would you expect to make, if you found yourself in such a universe?

If you can't come up with a good answer to that, it's not observation that's ruling out "non-reductionist" beliefs, but a priori logical incoherence.  If you can't say what predictions the "non-reductionist" model makes, how can you say that experimental evidence rules it out?

My thesis is that non-reductionism is a confusion; and once you realize that an idea is a confusion, it becomes a tad difficult to envision what the universe would look like if the confusion were true.  Maybe I've got some multi-level model of the world, and the multi-level model has a one-to-one direct correspondence with the causal elements of the physics?  But once all the rules are specified, why wouldn't the model just flatten out into yet another list of fundamental things and their interactions?  Does everything I can see in the model, like a 747 or a human mind, have to become a separate real thing?  But what if I see a pattern in that new supersystem?

Supernaturalism is a special case of non-reductionism, where it is not 747s that are irreducible, but just (some) mental things.  Religion is a special case of supernaturalism, where the irreducible mental things are God(s) and souls; and perhaps also sins, angels, karma, etc.

If I propose the existence of a powerful entity with the ability to survey and alter each element of our observed universe, but with the entity reducible to nonmental parts that interact with the elements of our universe in a lawful way; if I propose that this entity wants certain particular things, but "wants" using a brain composed of particles and fields; then this is not yet a religion, just a naturalistic hypothesis about a naturalistic Matrix.  If tomorrow the clouds parted and a vast glowing amorphous figure thundered forth the above description of reality, then this would not imply that the figure was necessarily honest; but I would show the movies in a science class, and I would try to derive testable predictions from the theory.

Conversely, religions have ignored the discovery of that ancient bodiless thing: omnipresent in the working of Nature and immanent in every falling leaf: vast as a planet's surface and billions of years old: itself unmade and arising from the structure of physics: designing without brain to shape all life on Earth and the minds of humanity.  Natural selection, when Darwin proposed it, was not hailed as the long-awaited Creator:  It wasn't fundamentally mental.

But now we get to the dilemma: if the staid conventional normal boring understanding of physics and the brain is correct, there's no way in principle that a human being can concretely envision, and derive testable experimental predictions about, an alternate universe in which things are irreducibly mental.  Because, if the boring old normal model is correct, your brain is made of quarks, and so your brain will only be able to envision and concretely predict things that can predicted by quarks.  You will only ever be able to construct models made of interacting simple things.

People who live in reductionist universes cannot concretely envision non-reductionist universes.  They can pronounce the syllables "non-reductionist" but they can't imagine it.

The basic error of anthropomorphism, and the reason why supernatural explanations sound much simpler than they really are, is your brain using itself as an opaque black box to predict other things labeled "mindful".  Because you already have big, complicated webs of neural circuitry that implement your "wanting" things, it seems like you can easily describe water that "wants" to flow downhill—the one word "want" acts as a lever to set your own complicated wanting-machinery in motion.

Or you imagine that God likes beautiful things, and therefore made the flowers.  Your own "beauty" circuitry determines what is "beautiful" and "not beautiful".  But you don't know the diagram of your own synapses.  You can't describe a nonmental system that computes the same label for what is "beautiful" or "not beautiful"—can't write a computer program that predicts your own labelings.  But this is just a defect of knowledge on your part; it doesn't mean that the brain has no explanation.

If the "boring view" of reality is correct, then you can never predict anything irreducible because you are reducible.  You can never get Bayesian confirmation for a hypothesis of irreducibility, because any prediction you can make is, therefore, something that could also be predicted by a reducible thing, namely your brain.

Some boxes you really can't think outside.  If our universe really is Turing computable, we will never be able to concretely envision anything that isn't Turing-computable—no matter how many levels of halting oracle hierarchy our mathematicians can talk about, we won't be able to predict what a halting oracle would actually say, in such fashion as to experimentally discriminate it from merely computable reasoning.

Of course, that's all assuming the "boring view" is correct.  To the extent that you believe evolution is true, you should not expect to encounter strong evidence against evolution.  To the extent you believe reductionism is true, you should expect non-reductionist hypotheses to be incoherent as well as wrong.  To the extent you believe supernaturalism is false, you should expect it to be inconceivable as well.

If, on the other hand, a supernatural hypothesis turns out to be true, then presumably you will also discover that it is not inconceivable.

So let us bring this back full circle to the matter of Intelligent Design:

Should ID be excluded a priori from experimental falsification and science classrooms, because, by invoking the supernatural, it has placed itself outside of natural philosophy?

I answer:  "Of course not."  The irreducibility of the intelligent designer is not an indispensable part of the ID hypothesis.  For every irreducible God that can be proposed by the IDers, there exists a corresponding reducible alien that behaves in accordance with the same predictions—since the IDers themselves are reducible; to the extent I believe reductionism is in fact correct, which is a rather strong extent, I must expect to discover reducible formulations of all supposedly supernatural predictive models.

If we're going over the archeological records to test the assertion that Jehovah parted the Red Sea out of an explicit desire to display its superhuman power, then it makes little difference whether Jehovah is ontologically basic, or an alien with nanotech, or a Dark Lord of the Matrix.  You do some archeology, find no skeletal remnants or armor at the Red Sea site, and indeed find records that Egypt ruled much of Canaan at the time.  So you stamp the historical record in the Bible "disproven" and carry on.  The hypothesis is coherent, falsifiable and wrong.

Likewise with the evidence from biology that foxes are designed to chase rabbits, rabbits are designed to evade foxes, and neither is designed "to carry on their species" or "protect the harmony of Nature"; likewise with the retina being designed backwards with the light-sensitive parts at the bottom; and so on through a thousand other items of evidence for splintered, immoral, incompetent design.  The Jehovah model of our alien god is coherent, falsifiable, and wrong—coherent, that is, so long as you don't care whether Jehovah is ontologically basic or just an alien.

Just convert the supernatural hypothesis into the corresponding natural hypothesis.  Just make the same predictions the same way, without asserting any mental things to be ontologically basic.  Consult your brain's black box if necessary to make predictions—say, if you want to talk about an "angry god" without building a full-fledged angry AI to label behaviors as angry or not angry.  So you derive the predictions, or look up the predictions made by ancient theologians without advance knowledge of our experimental results.  If experiment conflicts with those predictions, then it is fair to speak of the religious claim having been scientifically refuted.  It was given its just chance at confirmation; it is being excluded a posteriori, not a priori.

Ultimately, reductionism is just disbelief in fundamentally complicated things.  If "fundamentally complicated" sounds like an oxymoron... well, that's why I think that the doctrine of non-reductionism is a confusion, rather than a way that things could be, but aren't.  You would be wise to be wary, if you find yourself supposing such things.

But the ultimate rule of science is to look and see.  If ever a God appeared to thunder upon the mountains, it would be something that people looked at and saw.

Corollary:  Any supposed designer of Artificial General Intelligence who talks about religious beliefs in respectful tones, is clearly not an expert on reducing mental things to nonmental things; and indeed knows so very little of the uttermost basics, as for it to be scarcely plausible that they could be expert at the art; unless their idiot savancy is complete.  Or, of course, if they're outright lying.  We're not talking about a subtle mistake.

148 comments

Comments sorted by oldest first, as this post is from before comment nesting was available (around 2009-02-27).

comment by Nominull3 · 2008-09-12T01:12:39.000Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

It seems like you should be able to make experimental predictions about irreducible things. Take a quark, or a gluon, or the Grand Quantum Lifestream, or whatever reality is at the bottom, I don't really follow physics closely. In any case, you can make predictions about those things, and that's part and parcel of making predictions about airplanes and grizzly bears.

Even if it turns out that the Grand Quantum Lifestream is reducible further, you can make predictions about its components. Unless you think everything is infinitely reducible, but that proposition strikes me as unlikely.

Well, maybe the fundamental basis of reality is like a fractal. I wouldn't want to rule that out without thinking about it. But in any case it doesn't sound like what you're arguing.

comment by Phil_Goetz5 · 2008-09-12T01:29:26.000Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

I had a similar, shorter conversation with a theologian. He had hired me to critique a book he was writing, which claimed that reductionist science had reached its limits, and that it was time to turn to non-reductionist science.

The examples he gave were all phenomena which science had difficulty explaining, and which he claimed to explain as being irreducibly complex. For instance, because people had difficulty explaining how cells migrate in a developing fetus, he suggested (as Aristotle might have) that the cells had an innate fate or desire that led them to the right location.

What he really meant by non-reductionist science, was that as a "non-reductionist scientist", one is allowed to throw up one's hands, and say that there is no explanation for something. A claim that a phenomenon is supernatural is always the assertion that something has no explanation. (I don't know that it needs to be presented as a mental phenomenon, as Eliezer says.) So to "do" non-reductionist science is simply to not do science.

It should be possible, then, for a religious person to rightly claim that their point of view is outside the realm of science. If they said, for instance, that lightning is a spirit, that is not a testable hypothesis.

In practice, religions build up webs of claims, and of connections to the non-spiritual world, that can be tested for consistency. If someone claims not just that lightning is a spirit, but that an anthropomorphic God casts lightning bolts at sinners, that is a testable hypothesis. Once, when I was a Christian, lightning struck the cross behind my church. This struck me as strong empirical evidence against the idea that God directed every bolt. (I suppose one could interpret it as divine criticism of the church. The church elders did not, however, pursue that angle.)

Replies from: buybuydandavis
comment by buybuydandavis · 2011-10-27T08:15:15.714Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

What he really meant by non-reductionist science, was that as a "non-reductionist scientist", one is allowed to throw up one's hands, and say that there is no explanation for something.

No. Good scientists say that there are no current explanations all the time. The non-reductionist claims to know that there can't ever be an explanation. That's the opposite of throwing up your hands and saying you don't have an explanation. That's a claim to know that all possible explanations will fail.

Replies from: Grognor
comment by Grognor · 2011-12-01T22:10:11.914Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

What he really meant by non-reductionist science, was that as a "non-reductionist scientist", one is allowed to throw up one's hands, and say that there is no explanation for something.

beat

No. Good scientists say that there are no current explanations all the time. The non-reductionist claims to know that there can't ever be an explanation. That's the opposite of throwing up your hands and saying you don't have an explanation. That's a claim to know that all possible explanations will fail.

You tried to make a contradiction, but you ended up saying exactly the same thing. "There is no explanation," means no explanation exists, which is the nonsense position that Phil attacked three years ago. "We don't have an explanation yet," is entirely sensible, of course, which is why that position has never been attacked by anyone, ever.

Replies from: buybuydandavis
comment by buybuydandavis · 2011-12-03T06:27:12.368Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

No explanation exists for why there is lint in my belly button. No one has explained it, even to themselves. Now, if we think about it, we may come up with an explanation, but that doesn't mean the explanation exists now, anymore than a house we might build exists now because we might build it.

No explanation exists for X <> there can never be an explanation for X.

Replies from: nshepperd
comment by nshepperd · 2011-12-03T11:55:13.571Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

I have a feeling "no explanation exists" was meant in the mathematical sense of "exists". Which means exactly that there is no possible string of characters that is an explanation for X.

comment by Phil_Goetz5 · 2008-09-12T01:45:51.000Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

Once, in a LARP, I played Isaac Asimov on a panel which was arguing whether vampires were real. It went something like this (modulo my memory): I asked the audience to define "vampire", and they said that vampires were creatures that lived by drinking blood.

I said that mosquitoes were vampires. So they said that vampires were humanoids who lived by drinking blood.

I said that Masai who drank the blood of their cattle were vampires. So they said that vampires were humanoids who lived by drinking blood, and were burned by sunlight.

I (may have) said that a Masai with xeroderma pigmentosum was a vampire. And so on.

My point was that vampires were by definition not real - or at least, not understandable - because any time we found something real and understandable that met the definition of a vampire, we would change the definition to exclude it.

(Strangely, some mythical creatures, such as vampires and unicorns, seem to be defined in a spiritual way; whereas others, such as mermaids and centaurs, do not. A horse genetically engineered to grow a horn would probably not be thought of as a "real" unicorn; a genenged mermaid probably would be admitted to be a "real" mermaid.)

Replies from: buybuydandavis, army1987, DSimon, Peter_de_Blanc, wedrifid, JoshuaZ, V_V
comment by buybuydandavis · 2011-10-27T08:18:16.578Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

My point was that vampires were by definition not real - or at least, not understandable - because any time we found something real and understandable that met the definition of a vampire, we would change the definition to exclude it.

Daniel Dennett has a cute one like this. Real Magic (the kind in Vegas) is not Real Magic (Abracadabra shazam poof!).

Replies from: dlthomas
comment by dlthomas · 2011-12-19T17:55:00.167Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

I think my first encounter with this was James Randi, which makes a lot of sense. I don't know if it was originally his, either, though.

Replies from: buybuydandavis
comment by buybuydandavis · 2012-08-25T22:39:50.538Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

Found the quote the other day. Makes sense that Randi knew it too. Apparently Siegel was a magician and professor too, who wrote a book on Indian magic.

youtube, Free Will as Moral Competence, Daniel Dennett at the University of Melbourne, Australia, 15:21 Dennett quotes from "Net of Magic", by Lee Siegel

Quote from book: "I'm writing a book on magic, " I explain, and I'm asked, "Real magic?" By real magic people mean miracles, thaumaturgical acts, and supernatural powers. "No, " I answer: "Conjuring tricks, not real magic."

Dennett: Real magic, in other words, refers to the magic that is not real, while the magic that is real, that can actually be done, is not real magic.

Replies from: army1987, shminux
comment by A1987dM (army1987) · 2012-08-26T22:36:17.789Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

Dennett: Real magic, in other words, refers to the magic that is not real, while the magic that is real, that can actually be done, is not real magic.

That's the same quirk in natural language by which a heavy drinker is not usually a drinker who weighs a lot. ( can mean ‘a who/which is ’, or ‘someone/something who/which is ly a ’.)

Replies from: Alicorn
comment by Alicorn · 2012-08-26T22:39:45.823Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

Thank you for articulating my problem with the "real magic" quote.

comment by shminux · 2012-08-26T23:11:16.657Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

Surely real magic is done through yet-unknown means. It might stop being magical some day, once explained (reduced), in compliance with Clarke's 3rd law.

comment by A1987dM (army1987) · 2011-12-18T23:15:08.025Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

(Strangely, some mythical creatures, such as vampires and unicorns, seem to be defined in a spiritual way; whereas others, such as mermaids and centaurs, do not. A horse genetically engineered to grow a horn would probably not be thought of as a "real" unicorn; a genenged mermaid probably would be admitted to be a "real" mermaid.)

Dunno if it's because I'm not a native English speaker, but my intuition about the words unicorn and mermaid doesn't agree (whereas it does agree e.g. with Gettier about the precise meaning of knowledge, and most other similar problems about precise meanings of words).

Replies from: Prismattic, Vaniver
comment by Prismattic · 2011-12-19T01:39:36.492Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

I am a native English speaker, and I don't agree with the quoted passage either.

comment by Vaniver · 2011-12-19T03:15:14.236Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

I think this depends a lot on your exposure to centaur and unicorn myths. Both creatures were imagined in Greece; the centaur was just a mashup of man and horse, and the unicorn was just a kind of horned donkey found in faraway places. Thus, if you slapped a horn on some donkeys (or just found an oryx) you'd have a Greek unicorn.

But in medieval Europe, the unicorn became a symbol of purity, able to cure diseases and drawn to virgins. Oryxes can't cure diseases and aren't drawn to (human) virgins, which to a large extent is the point of a unicorn (to someone who adopts the medieval European imagination of unicorns).

Replies from: army1987
comment by A1987dM (army1987) · 2011-12-19T11:44:25.348Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

Yeah, that must be the reason. I'm not familiar with mediaeval myths about unicorns, so it means pretty much “a horse with a horn” (but I wouldn't count an oryx as one -- the uni- part means it has to only have one horn, doesn't it :-)), but on the other hand I know about the myth of the mermaids' singing (and Ulysses's strategy to cope with it) so I wouldn't count the top half of a woman glued onto the bottom half of a fish as one.

Replies from: Vaniver, ArisKatsaris
comment by Vaniver · 2011-12-19T17:09:56.170Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

Interestingly, mermaid myths may have been deliberate hoaxes, which makes the question of a "real" mermaid even muddier.

I'm not sure how Ctesias or Aristotle would react to seeing an oryx- they might decide it's a new duoceros different from monoceri or they might say "oops, I guess we only saw depictions of monoceri in profile, they actually have two horns."

comment by ArisKatsaris · 2011-12-19T17:16:41.537Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

but on the other hand I know about the myth of the mermaids' singing (and Ulysses's strategy to cope with it

A nitpick: The Odyssey had sirens singing, not mermaids -- and those were half-bird women, not half-fish women. See how they were depicted in ancient times

Replies from: Alejandro1
comment by Alejandro1 · 2011-12-19T18:07:46.131Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

In Spanish (and presumably also in whichever language is army's native tongue, if it is not Spanish) the word 'sirena' is used for both siren and mermaid, hence the confusion.

Replies from: army1987
comment by A1987dM (army1987) · 2012-01-21T10:00:10.857Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

Yes, it's Italian.

comment by DSimon · 2011-12-19T03:32:22.950Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

How about: Vampires are humanoids that can sustain themselves only by drinking blood? That excludes blood-drinking when done occasionally or as a cultural practice.

Replies from: MinibearRex, TheOtherDave
comment by MinibearRex · 2011-12-19T04:11:14.079Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

What about a human with altered biochemistry, such that they could synthesize all needed biological materials from compounds found in blood? Is that a vampire?

Replies from: dlthomas
comment by dlthomas · 2011-12-19T17:58:09.627Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

"Only by", not "by only".

Replies from: MinibearRex
comment by MinibearRex · 2011-12-20T07:36:13.705Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

Fine. Humans that are incapable of metabolizing anything other than hemoglobin. Does that count?

Replies from: dlthomas
comment by dlthomas · 2011-12-20T15:41:27.517Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

I'd call them a vampire, but it'd be partly in jest. DSimon's below would give me even less pause, and with a fuller list it seems to become entirely uncontroversial.

comment by TheOtherDave · 2011-12-19T04:18:39.148Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

If it turned out that there was a rare degenerative illness that prevented sufferers from absorbing nutrition from any source other than blood, would you agree that sufferers of that illness were vampires?

Replies from: DSimon
comment by DSimon · 2011-12-19T04:46:11.686Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

Ack. Okay, I guess I have no choice but to add yet another qualifier. :-)

How about: Vampires are very long-lived humanoids that derive their longevity from drinking blood. I can't think of a mundane example that fits that description. Which I suppose was Phil's original point: the only useful definition of "vampire" is one which excludes everything that could plausibly exist.

Replies from: wedrifid
comment by wedrifid · 2011-12-19T05:55:20.064Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

Vampires are very long-lived humanoids that derive their longevity from drinking blood.

Vampires are humanoids that don't have a functioning heart and which retain the memories of the human host whose death was necessary for their creation. (And they sure as heck don't glitter - that part is critical!)

comment by Peter_de_Blanc · 2011-12-19T03:39:41.111Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

My point was that vampires were by definition not real

So according to you, a mosquito that isn't real is a vampire?

Replies from: MinibearRex
comment by MinibearRex · 2011-12-19T04:09:47.971Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

His point is that: P(not real | vampire) ~= 1, which is not the same as: "vampire = not real". It's an if-then relationship, not a logical equivalency.

Replies from: Peter_de_Blanc
comment by Peter_de_Blanc · 2011-12-19T04:45:06.457Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

I understand that Phil was not suggesting that all non-real things are vampires. That's why my example was a mosquito that isn't real, rather than, say, a Toyota that isn't real.

Replies from: MinibearRex
comment by MinibearRex · 2011-12-19T05:23:27.747Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

But there's nothing particularly special about a mosquito. It's still an incorrect application of modus tollens. We have: If something is a vampire, then it is not real. From this, we can infer (from modus tollens) that if something is real, then it is not a vampire. Thus, if a certain mosquito is real, it is not a vampire. However, there is nothing here that justifies the belief that if a certain mosquito is imaginary, then it is a vampire.

Replies from: Peter_de_Blanc
comment by Peter_de_Blanc · 2011-12-19T09:29:40.938Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

What's special about a mosquito is that it drinks blood.

Phil originally said this:

My point was that vampires were by definition not real - or at least, not understandable - because any time we found something real and understandable that met the definition of a vampire, we would change the definition to exclude it.

Note Phil's use of the word "because" here. Phil is claiming that if vampires weren't unreal-by-definition, then the audience would not have changed their definition whenever provided with a real example of a vampire as defined. It follows that the original definition would have been acceptable had it been augmented with the "not-real" requirement, and so this is the claim I was responding to with the unreal mosquito example.

Replies from: MinibearRex
comment by MinibearRex · 2011-12-20T07:08:37.263Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

Ah. That makes more sense.

comment by wedrifid · 2011-12-19T06:20:39.299Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

My point was that vampires were by definition not real - or at least, not understandable - because any time we found something real and understandable that met the definition of a vampire, we would change the definition to exclude it.

Nonsense. If there was a creature that:

  • Used to be a normal living human
  • Still looks human
  • Has the same internal organs but none of them are functioning
  • Isn't vulnerable to hemlock
  • Has more strength than could plausibly attributed to humans according to our understanding of genetics
  • Has teeth which extend to fangs and then retract.
  • Can only be sustained by blood.
  • Definitely doesn't glitter. Ever.
  • Physically cannot enter people's houses due to physical restraint that seems to be only operating on the creature. Exception - can enter people's houses if invited.
  • Starts behaving like the human that they used to be except with extreme sociopathic and homicidal tendencies.
  • Is unaffected by getting stabbed in the chest by anything but a wooden stake. (Wooden stake kills him.)
  • Burns when exposed to sunlight, holy water or religious symbols.
  • Instantly turns to dust when staked, decapitated or sufficiently burnt via the aforementioned causes.

... then basically everyone would agree it was a vampire. LARPy Asimov is just being annoying when he tries to spin the question about the universe into a question about semantics.

Replies from: dlthomas
comment by dlthomas · 2011-12-19T18:02:12.577Z · LW(p) · GW(p)
  • Definitely doesn't glitter. Ever.

... then basically everyone would agree it was a vampire.

Except some Twilight fans.

comment by JoshuaZ · 2011-12-19T16:54:21.586Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

The key issue seems to not be the fiction but that the elements creating your "vampire" are separate. Your Masai with xeroderma pigmentosum has vampiric properties because of distinct separate events. If there were say a single virus that made people both have a similar light aversion and made them desire blood, I don't think most people would have a problem calling them vampires.

Replies from: army1987
comment by A1987dM (army1987) · 2011-12-19T17:35:34.157Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

Indeed, I would not object to being called a vampire if I had porphyria. (I was going to write “call someone a vampire if they have”, but I realize they might conceivably find it offensive.)

comment by V_V · 2012-08-26T23:30:26.570Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

My point was that vampires were by definition not real

Actually...

comment by Chris5 · 2008-09-12T02:20:56.000Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

Phil: Vampires ARE real. Both humans and animals can become vampires after being bitten by another vampire (very often a bat or racoon). After being bitten, they will go crazy and attempt to bite others. They also are unable to cross running water.

The virus has been discovered, and a vaccine exists.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Rabies

Yeah, I know, those aren't "real" vampires, even though that is very likely the source of the vampire mythology.

comment by mtraven · 2008-09-12T02:29:24.000Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

Of course water flows downhill because it wants to be lower. It just is not in its nature to be able to want anything else, which distinguishes it from more flexible want-systems like ourselves.

As to the supernatural, I suggest a useful analogy is mathematical objects, like 5, pi, the complex plane, or the Pythagorean theorem. These objects are not physical; they are not made of quarks nor reducible to them, even though any concrete instantiation of them (or instantiation of a thought about them) must involve some physical process; they are non-natural even though they pervade nature. Nobody here would deny the right of mathematicians to be pragmatic Platonists who treat mathematical objects as real things that they can think about and perform mental manipulations on. By analogy, I would at least consider the possibility that theologians have a similar right to make statements about their non-physical, non-natural object of study.

Replies from: Perplexed, Kenny
comment by Perplexed · 2010-08-02T14:56:41.359Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

Pure theology is relatively harmless. It's when they start doing applied theology that I wish they would get someone competent to check their calculations.

comment by Kenny · 2013-05-22T12:01:16.431Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

Funny that you use mathematics as an analogy to something being argued as irreducible, as mathematics is all reducible to fundamentally simple components. And one could even argue that mathematics is 'reducible' to simple physical systems; it's not like you're claiming that every other non-ontologically-fundamental concept or category is Platonically supernatural. What makes the patterns of mathematics special?

Replies from: TheAncientGeek
comment by TheAncientGeek · 2016-06-12T10:19:10.431Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

Mathematics doesn't escape the Munchausen Trilemma...how do you justify your axioms?

Replies from: Kenny
comment by Kenny · 2016-11-24T17:43:20.295Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

Mathematics, the thing that humans do, completely side-steps the trilemma. There's no need to justify any particular axiom, qua mathematics, because one can investigate the system(s) implied by any set of axioms.

But practically, e.g. when trying to justify the use of mathematics to describe the world or some part thereof, one must accept some axioms to even be able to 'play the game'. Radical skepticism, consistently held, is impractical, e.g. if you can't convince yourself that you and I are communicating then how do you convince yourself that there's a Munchausen Trilemma to be solved (or dissolved), let alone anything else about which to reason?

Replies from: TheAncientGeek, Dacyn
comment by TheAncientGeek · 2016-11-25T18:30:57.536Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

Mathematics, the thing that humans do, completely side-steps the trilemma. There's no need to justify any particular axiom, qua mathematics, because one can investigate the system(s) implied by any set of axioms.

There's a need to justify axioms if you are going to regard your theorems as true. Game-playing formalism amounts to that, but it is not "mathematics" per se, it is a rather radical take on mathematics.

But practically, e.g. when trying to justify the use of mathematics to describe the world or some part thereof, one must accept some axioms to even be able to 'play the game'.

Which then gets back to the trilemma.

Radical skepticism, consistently held, is impractical, e.g. if you can't convince yourself that you and I are communicating then how do you convince yourself that there's a Munchausen Trilemma to be solved (or dissolved), let alone anything else about which to reason?

Even if I have reason to reject radical scepticism, that doesn't mean I have a solution to the Trilemma.

Replies from: Kenny
comment by Kenny · 2016-11-28T18:51:47.477Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

There's a need to justify axioms if you are going to regard your theorems as true. Game-playing formalism amounts to that, but it is not "mathematics" per se, it is a rather radical take on mathematics.

I just don't feel that this a real practical problem to be solved – I don't have any relevant intuitions about why it would be.

In particular, it doesn't seem like the many interesting results relating to the axiom of choice (AC) – or even more specifically results pertaining to what can or cannot be proved assuming the axiom is true, or not so assuming – are "game-playing formalism". It just doesn't seem to me like it's a particularly useful notion that we must decide, once and for all, whether AC is true or not.

What do you or would you, personally, mean by believing that Euclidean geometry is not true? To me it seems like it's true by default, i.e. 'it' is just all the things implied by its axioms. Whether it's a useful theory with respect to understanding the universe we inhabit is a separate question (and it certainly seems to be the case to me that it is). What then is left by wondering still whether it's 'true'?

But practically, e.g. when trying to justify the use of mathematics to describe the world or some part thereof, one must accept some axioms to even be able to 'play the game'.

Which then gets back to the trilemma.

I don't follow you. If we "must accept some axioms to even be able to 'play the game'" then it seems like, at least practically, the trilemma is solved by accepting the 'axiomatic argument', i.e. "accepted precepts".

Replies from: TheAncientGeek
comment by TheAncientGeek · 2016-12-05T16:49:01.529Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

particular, it doesn't seem like the many interesting results relating to the axiom of choice (AC) – or even more specifically results pertaining to what can or cannot be proved assuming the axiom is true, or not so assuming – are "game-playing formalism".

I can make no sense of that, because taking something as true only in relation to an axiom whose truth is itself unknown is precisely what game playing formalism means. You seem to simultaneously asserting and denying he same thing.

What do you or would you, personally, mean by believing that Euclidean geometry is not true?

GPF mean Euclidean isn't true in any sense other than being a valid deduction from arbitrary premises,..for instance, that it isn't true in the sense of corresponding to the territory, and that it isn't true in the sense of being derived from non-arbitrary premises. As it happens, our best physics tells us that the universe does not have Euclidean geometry, so truth by correspondence is out, and we also know that the Euclidean axioms are not the only self -consistent axiom set, so the axioms of Euclidean geometry look arbitrary. All that being the case, Euclidean geometry is either false simpliciter, or true only in the diluted sense allowed by GPF.

It' is just all the things implied by its axioms.

Again, you seem to be agreeing with the substance of GPF while rejecting the label.

Whether it's a useful theory with respect to understanding the universe we inhabit is a separate question (and it certainly seems to be the case to me that it is). What then is left by wondering still whether it's 'true'?

If it were true in a full-strength sense, that would be an example of something that has evaded the Muchausen Trilemma.

then it seems like, at least practically, the trilemma is solved by accepting the 'axiomatic argument', i.e. "accepted precepts".

I think you are missing something important. The Trilemma doesn't just mean you have to choose between three methods of justification, it means you have to choose between three bad methods. If you can only say that something is true relative to some arbitrary axioms, then you can't say it is true in an absolute sense.

Replies from: Kenny
comment by Kenny · 2016-12-05T18:56:47.037Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

our best physics tells us that the universe does not have Euclidean geometry

How do you know that? How could I know that? Is either of our knowledge of this 'true'?

I don't understand how we're having this conversation if we don't both consider some things true and even agree that some of the same things are true.

Again, you seem to be agreeing with the substance of GPF while rejecting the label.

Yeah, that seems to be the case. Is the label not pejorative? Is it not intended to exclude the substance to which it refers by mockery?

If it were true in a full-strength sense, that would be an example of something that has evaded the Muchausen Trilemma.

I don't know why this would be interesting in and of itself. Assuming anything could be "true in a full-strength sense" and something was 'true in that sense', what would that mean?

I think you are missing something important. The Trilemma doesn't just mean you have to choose between three methods of justification, it means you have to choose between three bad methods.

It seems like you're trying to push some kind of imagined reductio ad absurdum but I refuse to play your game! I pronounce the Trilemma dissolved by virtue of the 'axiomatic argument' not being a bad method for justifying truth, actual mundane truth not 'absolute truth'.

If you can only say that something is true relative to some arbitrary axioms, then you can't say it is true in an absolute sense.

I agree and I freely admit that nothing is true in an absolute sense. I don't even know what that would mean. What could possibly be true – and expressible in a language made and used by humans – "in an absolute sense"?

Could you explain to me what the difference would be between something that is merely 'mundanely true' and something that is 'absolutely true'?

What would be different about the world if something was 'absolutely true'? What would be different if we knew that something was 'absolutely true'? And even if something was absolutely true how could we ever trust that we could know it was 'absolutely true'?

Replies from: TheAncientGeek
comment by TheAncientGeek · 2016-12-05T19:24:29.056Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

I don't understand how we're having this conversation if we don't both consider some things true and even agree that some of the same things are true.

I am not asserting that nothing is true.

Is the label not pejorative? Is it not intended to exclude the substance to which it refers by mockery?

No and no.

I don't know why this would be interesting in and of itself. Assuming anything could be "true in a full-strength sense" and something was 'true in that sense', what would that mean?

Prinicpally that its truth doesn't depend on arbitrary assumptions.

I pronounce the Trilemma dissolved by virtue of the 'axiomatic argument' not being a bad method for justifying truth, actual mundane truth not 'absolute truth'.

Most people think of mundane truth as absolute truth. The relative truth offered by GPF is a rather idiosyncratic taste.

I agree and I freely admit that nothing is true in an absolute sense. I don't even know what that would mean. What could possibly be true – and expressible in a language made and used by humans – "in an absolute sense"?

It's meaning is a straightforward reversal of "in a relative sense". If the one is comprehensible, so is the other.

Of course, you might be using "I can't see what absolute truth would mean" to mean "I can't see how absolute truth can be obtained"....

Could you explain to me what the difference would be between something that is merely 'mundanely true' and something that is 'absolutely true'?

I never used the phrase "mundanely true", so I don't have to explain it. As I have explained, the popular notion of truth is absolute, not relative, so the Munchausen Trilemma, if irresolvable, has the momentous implication that people can't have the only kind of truth they believe in.

Replies from: Kenny
comment by Kenny · 2016-12-05T19:50:36.204Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

Is the label not pejorative? Is it not intended to exclude the substance to which it refers by mockery?

No and no.

That seems unlikely. Describing something as 'game-playing' seems to be clearly implying that it's not serious, and therefore unworthy of serious consideration. How do you know it's not pejorative? Or were you merely asserting that you are not using it pejoratively?

I don't know why this would be interesting in and of itself. Assuming anything could be "true in a full-strength sense" and something was 'true in that sense', what would that mean?

Prinicpally that its truth doesn't depend on arbitrary assumptions.

I'm still confused. If a truth doesn't depend on "arbitrary assumptions" what makes it different than an "arbitrary assumption"? If you're familiar with mathematics, what would a sketch of a 'constructive proof' of an absolute truth look or seem like?

Presumably, something "true in a full-strength sense" would not depend on "arbitrary assumptions". If it depends on no other truths it seems equivalent to an axiom. Do you disagree? If you do disagree, can you help me understand how a truth like this could exist? Could you describe anything about such a truth that would be different than other truths?

I pronounce the Trilemma dissolved by virtue of the 'axiomatic argument' not being a bad method for justifying truth, actual mundane truth not 'absolute truth'.

Most people think of mundane truth as absolute truth. The relative truth offered by GPF is a rather idiosyncratic taste.

Let's ignore most people. I don't think of mundane truth as absolute truth. If you're not arguing that they're the same, what are you arguing?

I agree and I freely admit that nothing is true in an absolute sense. I don't even know what that would mean. What could possibly be true – and expressible in a language made and used by humans – "in an absolute sense"?

It's meaning is a straightforward reversal of "in a relative sense". If the one is comprehensible, so is the other.

So there's nothing else distinctive about absolute truth other than it 'not being relative'? That seems pretty uninteresting.

Of course, you might be using "I can't see what absolute truth would mean" to mean "I can't see how absolute truth can be obtained"....

Of course you might have written:

Mathematics doesn't escape the Munchausen Trilemma...how do you justify your axioms?

but you didn't actually mean anything by it. You haven't committed to claiming that mathematics is false; just that they're not 'absolutely true'. You haven't provided any means of distinguishing 'absolute truth' from any other kind other than claiming that the former is the complement of the latter among the set of all truths (or something similar).

You haven't offered any reason to care about 'absolute truth' or any ideas about the benefits acquiring such truths would render; nor any constructive, even-minutely-specific details about how one would acquire them.

I never used the phrase "mundanely true". As I have explained, the popular notion of truth is absolute, not relative, so the Munchausen Trilemma, if irresolvable, has the momentous implication that people can't have the only kind of truth they believe in.

I'm not arguing for any popular notion of truth. I claim truth is not absolute and cannot be.

Is there anything left to discuss?

Note that my original comment to which you replied was about mathematics being reducible, not absolutely true (or otherwise).

Replies from: TheAncientGeek
comment by TheAncientGeek · 2016-12-05T20:11:55.258Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

That seems unlikely. Describing something as 'game-playing' seems to be clearly implying that it's not serious, and therefore unworthy of serious consideration. How do you know it's not pejorative? Or were you merely asserting that you are not using it pejoratively?

Principally the latter, I suppose, although I don;t think it is particularly perjoritive in any case.

Prinicpally that its truth doesn't depend on arbitrary assumptions.

I'm still confused. If a truth doesn't depend on "arbitrary assumptions" what makes it different than an "arbitrary assumption"? If you're familiar with mathematics, what would a sketch of a 'constructive proof' of an absolute truth look or seem like?

There are any number of areas of knowledge where the axioms aren't at all obvious.

Presumably, something "true in a full-strength sense" would not depend on "arbitrary assumptions". If it depends on no other truths it seems equivalent to an axiom.

Consider an observation. Is that an axiom?

So there's nothing else distinctive about absolute truth other than it 'not being relative'? That seems pretty uninteresting.

And there's nothing distinctive about God's existence other than it's being the opposite of God's non-existence. You seem to be associating momentousness with complexity.

You haven't provided any means of distinguishing 'absolute truth' from any other kind other than claiming that the former is the complement of the latter among the set of all truths (or something similar).

The means of distinguishing them is just the kind of argument we are having now. Of course, that is not particularly algorithmic. If you are running on the implicit assumption that nothing is meaningful unless it has very precise, algorithmic truth conditions, then that could do with being made explicit.

You haven't offered any reason to care about 'absolute truth'

I have in fact explained why the non existence of absolute truth would turn the world upside down for billions of people.

Consider use of arbitrary axiom in arguments with real-world implications:

Axiom1: You owe me a whole number sum greater than $99. Axiom2: You owe me a whole number sum less than $101. Conclusion: You owe me $100.

So.. do you owe me that money? Arbitrary axioms are relatively safe in mathematics, because it is abstract..they are pretty disastrous when applied to the real world.

I'm not arguing for any popular notion of truth. I claim truth is not absolute and cannot be.

Is there anything left to discuss?

Yes: whether you are correct.

Mathematics does not "compeltely" sidestep the Munchausen Trillema, because completely sidestrepping it would not involve a compromise nature of truth!

Replies from: Kenny
comment by Kenny · 2016-12-14T20:37:59.268Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

Prinicpally that its truth doesn't depend on arbitrary assumptions.

I'm still confused. If a truth doesn't depend on "arbitrary assumptions" what makes it different than an "arbitrary assumption"? If you're familiar with mathematics, what would a sketch of a 'constructive proof' of an absolute truth look or seem like?

There are any number of areas of knowledge where the axioms aren't at all obvious.

It's not clear to me how your reply is relevant. But by your own criteria, in what sense do these areas consist of 'knowledge' if there are no obvious axioms? In what sense is something known if it's not true? Do you mean knowledge in a sense that I would accept?

Regardless of the obviousness of axioms for a particular area of knowledge – doesn't an area of knowledge accept – at least implicitly – a number of axioms? It sure seems to me that, in practice, every area of knowledge simply accepts many claims as axioms because it's impossible to reason at all without assuming something. For example, every area assumes that people exist, that the relevant object(s) of study exist, that people can gather evidence somehow of the objects of study, that the universe is not arbitrary and capricious 'magic', etc.

And there's nothing distinctive about God's existence other than it's being the opposite of God's non-existence. You seem to be associating momentousness with complexity.

That's not true (ha)! Certainly God's existence is incredibly distinctive in so far that God has definite attributes and there is some correlation between those attributes and the universe we can observe. If there is no such evidence it's not clear in what sense God 'exists'.

What I've yet to glean from your comments is how 'absolute truth' is any different than 'green sound'. They're both short phrases but neither seems to refer to anything.

You haven't provided any means of distinguishing 'absolute truth' from any other kind other than claiming that the former is the complement of the latter among the set of all truths (or something similar).

The means of distinguishing them is just the kind of argument we are having now. Of course, that is not particularly algorithmic. If you are running on the implicit assumption that nothing is meaningful unless it has very precise, algorithmic truth conditions, then that could do with being made explicit.

The argument in which I've been participating is whether 'absolute truth' is coherent in principle. A means of distinguishing it from some other potential kind of 'truth' would certainly help me better understand what you seem to be trying to communicate.

The means of distinguishing them is just the kind of argument we are having now. Of course, that is not particularly algorithmic.

What's not "particularly algorithmic"? I don't think you've provided a means of distinguishing between absolute truth and other truths. Did I miss it or miss them? I'd be curious if you could offer any potential means in any form.

You haven't offered any reason to care about 'absolute truth'

I have in fact explained why the non existence of absolute truth would turn the world upside down for billions of people.

You did? You simply asserted that most people conflate 'truth' and 'absolute truth' but I disagree. For one reason, I can't distinguish between people believing something to be an 'absolute truth' and believing something to be an 'axiom'.

But let's assume that most people believe things to be 'absolutely true' and yet, somehow, someone convinces them of the non-existence of absolute truth. What exactly causes the 'world to be turned upside down' for these people? That, because they think all truth is 'absolute truth' and that they're now convinced that the latter doesn't exist that therefore nothing is true? If they think nothing is true would that also include the belief or claim that 'absolute truth does not exist'?

Consider use of arbitrary axiom in arguments with real-world implications:

Axiom1: You owe me a whole number sum greater than $99. Axiom2: You owe me a whole number sum less than $101. Conclusion: You owe me $100.

So.. do you owe me that money? Arbitrary axioms are relatively safe in mathematics, because it is abstract..they are pretty disastrous when applied to the real world.

Your entire argument seems like an attempt at a 'sophisticated' justification of radical skepticism. So I'm not sure how I can possibly accept or decline either of those axioms. On what grounds would I do so or not do so?

What you seem to be trying to sidestep tho is a number of claims or beliefs that are required for the scenario you described above to even be sensible:

  1. There is a thing 'you'.
  2. There is a thing 'me'.
  3. That there are things 'the natural numbers'.
  4. There are things 'dollars' quantified using 'natural numbers'.
  5. That the things 'you' and 'me' could possibly be related such that one of us 'owes' the other some number of 'dollars'. x. ...

Those claims, those beliefs, are what seem like required axioms. Because without assuming they're true it's not clear in what sense one can believe anything, let alone engage in written communication about something.

It's pretty clear you're acting as-if you believe I exist and that I can engage in an argument or discussion with you. It's pretty clear that there is a 'you', tho the details of your person are largely unknown to me, e.g. whether you're really a number of distinct people.

There is no "ideal philosophy student of perfect emptiness" on which 'absolute truth' could possibly be bestowed. By the way, that post to which I just linked covers all the reasons why the idea of 'absolute truth' is not even wrong.

You and I were both bootstrapped as minds with already existing 'axioms', tho really none of them are incapable of being revised or replaced.

Mathematics does not "compeltely" sidestep the Munchausen Trillema, because completely sidestrepping it would not involve a compromise nature of truth!

Okay, everything completely sidesteps the Münchhausen trilemma because it's not actually a trilemma, because there is no absolute perfect truth of which anyone is capable of knowing.

Or, nothing involves a "compromise nature of truth" – because there's only one 'truth', it's built on evidence, and it's all bootstrapped by evolution and history.

From the end of the linked post, A Priori:

Perhaps you cannot argue anything to a hypothetical debater who has not accepted Occam's Razor, just as you cannot argue anything to a rock. A mind needs a certain amount of dynamic structure to be an argument-acceptor. If a mind doesn't implement Modus Ponens, it can accept "A" and "A->B" all day long without ever producing "B". How do you justify Modus Ponens to a mind that hasn't accepted it? How do you argue a rock into becoming a mind?

Brains evolved from non-brainy matter by natural selection; they were not justified into existence by arguing with an ideal philosophy student of perfect emptiness. This does not make our judgments meaningless. A brain-engine can work correctly, producing accurate beliefs, even if it was merely built - by human hands or cumulative stochastic selection pressures - rather than argued into existence. But to be satisfied by this answer, one must see rationality in terms of engines, rather than arguments.

The Münchhausen trilemma has been around for awhile and yet truth is just as true as ever. No one is bothered by it in practice. It's an empty argument.

Replies from: CCC, TheAncientGeek
comment by CCC · 2016-12-15T07:09:14.961Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

What I've yet to glean from your comments is how 'absolute truth' is any different than 'green sound'. They're both short phrases but neither seems to refer to anything.

It's kind of a side point, but there actually is such a thing as green noise (there's actually four different definitions...)

Replies from: Kenny
comment by Kenny · 2017-04-20T23:13:19.367Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

Definitely a side point, but thanks for the info anyways!

comment by TheAncientGeek · 2016-12-15T16:09:23.786Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

It's not clear to me how your reply is relevant. But by your own criteria, in what sense do these areas consist of 'knowledge' if there are no obvious axioms?

In the sense that they are taught in classrooms, cited in encyclopedias and so on. Take empirical knowledge. It may be based on vague intuitions, but it isn't based on formal axioms.

Do you mean knowledge in a sense that I would accept?

I have no idea what you would accept.

It sure seems to me that, in practice, every area of knowledge simply accepts many claims as axioms because it's impossible to reason at all without assuming something. For example, every area assumes that people exist, that the relevant object(s) of study exist, that people can gather evidence somehow of the objects of study, that the universe is not arbitrary and capricious 'magic', etc.

I have been drawing a distinction between necessary presuppositions ("intuitions") and arbitrary premises ("axioms). The wholesale embrace of derivation from arbitrary axioms as fully-fledged truth leads to the undesirable outcome of an epistemological explosion..every proposition becomes proveable and disproveable.

Trying to manage without even the most basic intuition is desirable, but, as far as we can tell, impossible.

However, the ineradicability of some intuitions doesn't make the wholesale embrace of arbitrary axioms a good idea! If we cannot manage without intuitions, we can avoid the worst of the problems by minimising their use, particularly in real-world contexts, but that is damage containment, not a full solution,

What I've yet to glean from your comments is how 'absolute truth' is any different than 'green sound'. They're both short phrases but neither seems to refer to anything.

If "depends on axioms" has a meaning, "does not depend on axioms" has a meaning. Whether truth indpendent of axioms is obtainable is another question.

hat exactly causes the 'world to be turned upside down' for these people? That, because they think all truth is 'absolute truth' and that they're now convinced that the latter doesn't exist that therefore nothing is true? If they think nothing is true would that also include the belief or claim that 'absolute truth does not exist'?

Only if the law of the excluded middle remain robustly true, which it doesn't...

So.. do you owe me that money? Arbitrary axioms are relatively safe in mathematics, because it is abstract..they are pretty disastrous when applied to the real world.

Your entire argument seems like an attempt at a 'sophisticated' justification of radical skepticism. So I'm not sure how I can possibly accept or decline either of those axioms. On what grounds would I do so or not do so?

The argument is supposed to work as a reductio ad absurdum. You are supposed to disbelieve the conclusion that you owe me money, and therefore reject the assumption that "truths about the real world can be derived from arbitrary axioms".

And notice the amount of work being done by "arbitrary" here.

There is a thing 'you'. There is a thing 'me'. That there are things 'the natural numbers'. There are things 'dollars' quantified using 'natural numbers'. That the things 'you' and 'me' could possibly be related such that one of us 'owes' the other some number of 'dollars'. x. ...

There is some sort of evidence of argument for all of those, so they are neither arbitrary nor axiomatic, strictly speaking.

Mathematics does not "completelly" sidestep the Munchausen Trillema, because completely sidestrepping it would not involve a compromise nature of truth!

Okay, everything completely sidesteps the Münchhausen trilemma because it's not actually a trilemma, because there is no absolute perfect truth of which anyone is capable of knowing.

That amounts to saying that the MT is true because it is false. That there is no absolute truth, no entirely satisfactory means of justification is the conclusion of the MT, so adopting it as a premise is hardly to argue against MT.

You seem to think that in the absence of absolute truth , relative truth is 1) unavoidable and 2) unproblematic.

But 1) doesn't follow, because there is a third option, scepticism.

and 2) doesn't follow, because of epistemological explosion. We always do have background intuitions , and one of them is that the set of true propositions isn't a huge, incoherent , self-contradictory morass.

We can avoid the worst of (2) by minimising the use of intuition, but because that is not a full solution, we also need to adopt a degree of scepticism in recognition of the fact.

Or, nothing involves a "compromise nature of truth" – because there's only one 'truth', it's built on evidence, and it's all bootstrapped by evolution and history.

if the arbitrary axioms are handed to us by evolution, they are still arbitrary in the ways that matter. So your rightly scare quoted 'truth' isn't known to be true, and the MT still applies.

The Münchhausen trilemma has been around for awhile and yet truth is just as true as ever.

How do you know?

comment by Dacyn · 2016-11-26T01:22:22.406Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

The investigation of the systems implied by a set of axioms also requires some assumptions. For example, one must assume that any axiom implies itself, i.e. P -> P. Once this axiom is accepted, there are a great number of logical axioms which are equally plausible.

comment by Z._M._Davis · 2008-09-12T02:34:03.000Z · LW(p) · GW(p)"My thesis is that non-reductionism is a confusion; and once you realize that an idea is a confusion, it becomes a tad difficult to envision what the universe would look like if the confusion were true."

I still seem to be able to envision what things would look like if a form of Cartesian dualism were true. Our ordinary laws of physics would govern all matter except one or more places deep in the brain, where the laws of physics would be violated where the soul is "pulling the strings" of the body, as it were. These deviations from physics would not happen unlawfully, but rather would be governed by special, complicated laws of psychology, rather than physics. In principle, this should be testable.

Unlawfulness and nonreductionism are distinct concepts; I can see how the former is incoherent, but the latter still seems logically possible, if false.

Replies from: Kenny, MaxNanasy
comment by Kenny · 2013-05-22T17:37:46.562Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

I personally can't imagine anything fundamentally complicated. I guess I could imagine tho that something might be a black box with complicated behavior, i.e. something complicated but with no parts that could be analyzed separately (because we can't open the box for whatever reason). But if this something was lawful, we could still analyze the various components of the laws that governed its behavior, e.g. "hmmm ... when we isolate the influence of x, the measurement of the output of the black box seems to correspond roughly to an exponential function of the measurement of x ...".

I don't think lawful and reducible are entirely (or even a little) independent. Really, I'm struggling to think of an example where 'lawful' doesn't mean 'reducible'.

comment by MaxNanasy · 2016-12-10T04:33:50.496Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

How is dualism necessarily nonreductive? Materialism says everything is reducible to fundamental interacting physical components, whereas dualism says everything is reducible to fundamental interacting physical and mental/spiritual components.

comment by Constant2 · 2008-09-12T02:39:54.000Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

My point was that vampires were by definition not real - or at least, not understandable - because any time we found something real and understandable that met the definition of a vampire, we would change the definition to exclude it.

But the same exchange might have occurred with something entirely real. We are not in the habit of giving fully adequate definitions, so it is often possible to find counterexamples to the definitions we give, which might prompt the other person to add to the definition to exclude the counterexample. For example:

A: What is a dog?

B: A dog is a four-footed animal that is a popular pet.

A: So a cat is a dog.

B: Dogs bark.

A: So if I teach a cat to bark, it will become a dog.

etc.

comment by Aaron6 · 2008-09-12T03:12:44.000Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

Constant: with dogs, you can point to examples and say "these animals, and animals closely related to these are dogs".

Replies from: SecondWind
comment by SecondWind · 2013-04-17T06:34:55.846Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

...whereas with vampires, you're stuck pointing to a collection of fictional representations. This restricts certain information-gathering techniques (you can't put a vampire under a microscope; at best, you can use a fictional account of a vampire under a microscope) but shouldn't make the exercise impossible. I'm pretty sure we could convey 'stop sign' without ever letting you observe a real-life stop sign.

comment by Stu · 2008-09-12T04:24:09.000Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

I think it comes down to the fact that, if you want to understand the universe around us, the scientific method is consistently successful and supernaturalism is consistently a failure.

If you want to actually prove that scientific method is better, it's very hard to do without reasoning with the scientific method itself, which would be circular logic and thus inconsistent with the scientific method.

So let's just say that, I like to know how the universe works, and if any form of supernaturalism were the best way of doing that, then I would use it. Instead I use the scientific method, because that is what works.

Supernaturalism has other uses, but they are not uses that I subscribe to.

comment by Tiiba2 · 2008-09-12T04:25:45.000Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

Okay, so here's a dryad. You cut her open, and see white stuff. You take a sample, put it under a microscope, and still see white stuff. You use a scanning tunneling microscope, and still see white stuff. You build an AI and tell it to analyze the sample. The AI converts galaxies into computronium and microscopium, conducts every experiment it can think of, and after a trillion years reports: "The dryad is made of white stuff, and that's all I know. Screw this runaround, what's for dinner?"

But using an outside view of sorts (observed behavior), you can still predict what the dryad will do next. Just like with quarks and with Occam's razor and with prime numbers. And things you haven't reduced yet, but think you can, like people or the LHC.

So, what would you call this dryad?

Replies from: Luke_A_Somers, Benito
comment by Luke_A_Somers · 2012-08-26T03:41:48.029Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

If you look at it in an STM, you aren't going to be able to see white stuff, because that isn't sensitive to color. But since you were able to image it at all instead of crashing your tip, you can also tell that dryad insides are electrically conductive. We should be able to determine the resistivity of dryad, as a function of gate voltage, impurity density, magnetic field, etc.

No matter what the result is, we now know more about dryad stuff.

So I'd suggest that they be insulating instead, as that closes off all those transport experiments.

comment by Ben Pace (Benito) · 2012-12-17T20:27:22.944Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

If it's causally connected to the physical world, we can test exactly what force(s) it gives out upon other things. We can test how it reflects photons, and all sorts of other things. It would, in the end, have all the physical qualities we attribute to things in this universe, and then it would no longer be mysterious. If it affects us, we can measure that effect.

As to your question, what would I call it?

I'd probably call it a 'dryad'.

Replies from: MugaSofer
comment by MugaSofer · 2012-12-17T20:39:27.674Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

Well, it's effects might not be mysterious, but it's nature would be.

comment by ennui · 2008-09-12T04:59:00.000Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

In that special Cartesian theater, I can picture an even smaller Homunculus pulling the strings of the larger. And so on. Turtles.

comment by Z._M._Davis · 2008-09-12T05:23:53.000Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

Ennui: "In that special Cartesian theater, I can picture an even smaller Homunculus pulling the strings of the larger."

But what if the homunculus were ontologically fundamental?--of course the notion is silly and of course it's false, but I'm not yet convinced that it's literally nonsense on the order of square circles or A-and-not-A. It could be that I just need some intuition-reshaping, but in the meantime I can do nothing else but call it as I see it.

Replies from: Perplexed
comment by Perplexed · 2010-08-02T15:13:39.766Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

Substance dualism doesn't even require that homunculi be fundamental. It only requires that they be built from mind-stuff. They can be composite agents in the sense of co-operative game theory. Maybe that explains why humans are not perfectly rational. We are controlled by a committee.

comment by Constant2 · 2008-09-12T06:25:23.000Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

Aaron - yes, I know that. It's beside the point.

comment by Mike_Blume · 2008-09-12T07:41:01.000Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

Z. M. Davis: But if you think about the things that the homunculus tends to do, I think you would find yourself needing to move to levels below the homunculus to do it. To give it a coherent set of actions it is likely to take, and not to take, at any given time, you would have to populate it with wants, with likes, with beliefs, with structures for reasoning about beliefs.

I think eventually you would come to an algorithm of which the homunculus would have to be an instantiation, and you would have to assume that that algorithm was represented somewhere.

I just don't see how you can make sensible predictions about ontologically basic complicated things. And I know people will go on about how you can't make predictions about a person with free will, but that's a crock. You expect me to try to coherently answer your post. I expect a cop to arrest me if I drive too fast. More to the point, we don't expect neurologically intact humans to spend three years walking backwards, or talk to puddles, or remove their clothing and sing "I'm a little teapot" in Times Square.

And the same goes for gods, incidentally. Religious folk will say that their gods' ways are ineffable, that they can't be predicted. But they still expect their gods to answer prayers, and forgive sins, and torture people like me for millennia, and they don't expect them to transform mount everest into a roast beef sandwich, or thunder forth nursery rhymes from the heavens.

They have coherent expectations, and for those expectations to make sense you have to open the black box and put things in there. You have to postulate structure, and relationships between parts, and soon you haven't got something ontologically basic anymore.

comment by Tim_Tyler · 2008-09-12T07:46:08.000Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

The dictionary has at #1: "of, pertaining to, or being above or beyond what is natural; unexplainable by natural law or phenomena; abnormal."

It seems about right. E.g. travelling into to the past is supernatural.

comment by Ian_C. · 2008-09-12T08:08:34.000Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

It's deeper than science being only applicable to natural things -- reason as such is only applicable to natural things. Once you are in the realm of the supernatural anything is possible and the laws of logic don't necessarily hold. You have to just close your mouth and turn off your mind and have faith. Which does not give a teacher a lot of material to work with...

comment by Mike_Blume · 2008-09-12T08:13:52.000Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

Somebody let me know if I'm pushing my allowed post rate?

Tim: I'm not sure about that definition. Are we saying unexplainable by natural law as understood by humans at the time - ie quantum tunneling was supernatural 100 years ago, but is no longer?

Or would that mean unexplainable by the natural laws that exist? I just don't like this one because then we've simply defined the supernatural out of existence. The set of supernatural things and the set of real things would be non-overlapping by definition.

comment by botogol2 · 2008-09-12T08:46:11.000Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

more pragmatically you can't teach creationism because you wouldn't know which which creationist story to teach? The christian one isn't the only creation story. How about the jain one? the buddhist story? the viking story? the Roman creation story?

One way to go about it would be to assemble the whole canon of stories, and then look about in the world around us to see if there is any evidence that helps support or falsify the different accounts. Maybe one could examine the stories and create some testable predictions from them and .... oh, hang about...

comment by Klaas_Wassenaar · 2008-09-12T09:13:30.000Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

Howmany believers in the supernatural examples given in this post would after reading this post remain believing the supernatural?

About teaching ID as science, isn't it often done before learning how to do scientific research?

People seem to learn about God, bible, while they still believe in Santa .

Replies from: JohnH
comment by JohnH · 2011-04-22T01:18:18.190Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

The definition given of supernatural doesn't make sense from my perspective, not even of God. As far as I can tell the definition describes exactly nothing.

I still believe in the supernatural in the sense of I know God is real and so are spirits and the devil. However spirit is some form of matter, God has a body of flesh and bones, and both God and the rest of the universe has existed in some form forever. Also God does not violate natural laws, though he does work with higher laws then what we currently know. Clearly not the standard religous claims and while it may seem that I am tailoring these beliefs to meet objections I am not; they are found in the Doctrine and Covenants of the Church of Jesus Christ of Latter-Day Saints and were given in the 1830-1840's.

You asked.

Replies from: Eugine_Nier
comment by Eugine_Nier · 2011-04-22T01:26:11.505Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

So basically God is a sufficiently advanced alien.

Replies from: JohnH, badger
comment by JohnH · 2011-04-22T01:39:27.121Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

Basically yes, though we are of the same species as him. Not that being the same species makes him any less of an alien as in the Pearl of Great Price does say that there are other worlds on which humans live. The D&C also basically says there are non-human intelligent aliens out there as well.

Replies from: Alicorn, badger
comment by Alicorn · 2011-04-22T02:18:08.995Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

The D&C also basically says there are non-human intelligent aliens out there as well.

Do they report to a different deity, so they match, or do they share ours?

(My Mormon friends are mostly sick of talking to me about religion. I congratulate you on being noncombative and civil here.)

Replies from: JohnH
comment by JohnH · 2011-04-22T02:31:06.419Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

The specific passage is in reference to the strange creatures in Revelation where the creatures do in fact report to our deity. There may be others that do not, if there are such information has not be revealed as of yet, though all things will eventually be revealed so I suppose we will eventually find out in some way, it just might not be until the millennium.

comment by badger · 2011-04-25T16:19:40.535Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

Do you know the reference for that? A quick Google search didn't turn up anything.

Growing up in the church, I took it as given that there were people growing up on other worlds, but this is the first time I've heard of non-human intelligent beings.

Replies from: JohnH
comment by JohnH · 2011-04-25T18:01:32.869Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

Revelation 4:6-9 - is where the beasts or creatures are described D&C 77:2-4 - is where it says they are both figurative as well as literal beasts or creatures.

comment by badger · 2011-04-25T16:30:43.640Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

This is non-standard, but not uncommon. My father-in-law will readily say he believes in a non-omniscient, non-omnipotent, naturalistic god.

The other extreme – everything is supernatural – is also present in LDS theology. All matter is composed of intelligence and hence under God's command because it recognizes his authority.

comment by RobinHanson · 2008-09-12T10:02:05.000Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

I share your difficulty of imagining irreducible mental stuff, but I'll still assign a 10^-3 chance of it being there anyway. Anyone else care to assign a number?

comment by Ben_Jones · 2008-09-12T10:35:53.000Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

Robin, what's your algorithm for drawing up a number like that? I'd genuinely like to know.

I only ask because you can get 1000-1 on Stoke to win the Premier League this season, and I'd rather have a tenner on that than on 'minds are made of fundamental mind-stuff' at the same odds.

comment by Vladimir_Nesov · 2008-09-12T10:56:55.000Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

What does it mean for something to be irreducible?

comment by Utilitarian2 · 2008-09-12T12:51:13.000Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

I would ask the same question as Nominull and Tiiba: Why is a fundamentally mental thing different from a fundamentally physical thing like quarks? If we discovered a spirit in a tree that wasn't composed of quarks and leptons, is there a reason we couldn't take that spirit to be a new fundamental particle that behaves in such-and-such a way, just as a down quark is a fundamental particle that behaves in such-and-such a way?

Eliezer: If, on the other hand, a supernatural hypothesis turns out to be true, then presumably you will also discover that it is not inconceivable.

Right. So apart from Occam's razor, what's the reason for excluding things that aren't quarks and leptons from your set of fundamental particles?

comment by poke · 2008-09-12T14:29:00.000Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

This is why I claim that atheism is an established scientific result. One of the strongest lines of evidence is, indeed, that we have successfully reduced minds and shown the notion of an irreducible mind to be incoherent. Mind as an irreducible simple is basic to all monotheistic religions. Demonstrating something once thought coherent to be incoherent is, of course, one of the strongest lines of evidence in science. Other avenues through which atheism has been established by science include conservation in physics, chemistry and biology (which led directly to materialism), evolution, and the development of plausible sociological accounts of religion. I would argue that atheism is as well established as Plate Tectonics and Natural Selection. What I think is telling is that most contemporary approaches to religious apologetics implicitly recognize that science has established atheism.

The theist has three avenues of response. The first is to attack specific parts of science. This is what Fundamentalist Christians do. The second, by far the most popular, is to attack the very possibility of scientific knowledge. This is what nearly all "liberal" religious believers who claim there is no conflict between science and religion do. They generally adopt a skeptical epistemology, holding that no knowledge claim can be true, or instrumentalism about science, holding that scientific claims are nonfactual, or a quasi-Kantian constructivist metaphysics wherein "true" reality is forever out of reach. The weird thing is that this position, which essentially rejects all of science, is considered more "sophisticated" and acceptable than the Fundamentalist position which rejects only select parts of science but remains realist about the rest. The third approach is to adopt some sort of nonfactualism about religious claims; essentially to hold that your religious practice is merely tradition. I think this nearly exhausts contemporary positions on religious apologetics and is therefore evidence that people implicitly accept that science has established atheism.

Replies from: TheAncientGeek
comment by TheAncientGeek · 2016-05-20T14:28:56.951Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

If we have succefully reduced minds, that only shows that the claim that minds are irreducible is false, not that it is incoherent,

comment by Phil_Goetz5 · 2008-09-12T15:48:31.000Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

I thought about this a bit more last night. I think the right justification for religion - which is not one that any religious person would consciously agree with - is that it does not take on faith the idea that truth is always good.

Reductionism aims at learning the truth. Religion is inconsistent and false - and that's a feature, not a bug. Its social purpose is to grease the wheels of society where bare truth would create friction.

For example: In Rwanda, people who slaughtered the families of other people in their village, are now getting out of jail and coming back to live with the surviving relatives of their victims in the same villages. Rwanda needs this to happen; there are so many killers and conspirators, that they can't keep them in jail or kill them - these killers are a significant part of their nation's work force. Also, this would start the war all over again.

I have heard a few accounts of how they persuade the surviving relatives to forgive and live with the killers. They agree that the only way to do this is by using religious arguments.

Perhaps a true rationalist could be persuaded to leave the killer of their family alone, on grounds of self-interest. I'm easily more rational than 99.9% of the population, but I don't think I'm that rational.

If we had a population of purely rational thinking machines, perhaps we would need no religion. But since we have only humans to work with, it may play a valid role where the irrational nature of humans and the rational truth of science would, together, lead to disaster.

Replies from: taryneast, shokwave
comment by taryneast · 2010-12-19T11:31:54.284Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

Paraphrasing: It's just a lie used to manipulate people into doing what you want them to do against their natural tendencies... but because you're incapable of finding a truth that will actually satisfy them (ie it's a useful lie), it should be kept around.

comment by shokwave · 2010-12-19T12:47:02.625Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

That religion solves problems like "get people to accept daily life with the murderer of their family" really doesn't seem like justification, just a single positive aspect that probably doesn't outweigh the negatives. That there aren't many stronger justifications is also concerning.

To wit: The truth tells you not to jump off cliffs. That the truth is of no use to you once you have jumped off a cliff is hardly an argument against it. A useful lie telling you that you can fly will be very useful to you once you jump off a cliff, but that is hardly an argument for the useful lie when you're considering your decision regarding the cliff-jumping.

comment by Benya_Fallenstein (Benja_Fallenstein) · 2008-09-12T16:05:04.000Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

Eliezer, I think I agree with most of what you say in this post, but unless I misunderstand what you mean by "Bayesian confirmation," I think you're wrong about this bit:

If the "boring view" of reality is correct, then you can never predict anything irreducible because you are reducible. You can never get Bayesian confirmation for a hypothesis of irreducibility, because any prediction you can make is, therefore, something that could also be predicted by a reducible thing, namely your brain.

I think that while you can in this case never devise an empirical test whose outcome could logically prove irreducibility, there is no clear reason to believe that you cannot devise a test whose counterfactual outcome in an irreducible world would make irreducibility subjectively much more probable (given an Occamian prior).

Without getting into reducibility/irreducibility, consider the scenario that the physical universe makes it possible to build a hypercomputer -- that performs operations on arbitrary real numbers, for example -- but that our brains do not actually make use of this: they can be simulated perfectly well by an ordinary Turing machine, thank you very much. If this scenario were true, would it follow that we cannot possibly obtain "Bayesian confirmation" of its truth? I don't think that is the case: Of course, it is true that any empirical test our brains could devise in this scenario could also be passed by a Turing machine that simulated our brains to decide what its answer should be. In fact, every test "does the universe do X if we do Y at time T" we may devise to test whether the universe allows for infinite computations can be met by a Turing machine universe whose code simply includes the instruction to do X at time T. But, such a Turing machine may be complex enough that we start taking "the universe allows for hypercomputation" to be the simpler (and thus, more probable) alternative -- unless we are willing to completely exclude that possibility a priori, which I'm not willing to do and I expect you aren't, either.

Thus, I think that either your argument doesn't support your conclusion, or I don't understand your argument yet :-)

comment by Caledonian2 · 2008-09-12T16:53:07.000Z · LW(p) · GW(p)
I still seem to be able to envision what things would look like if a form of Cartesian dualism were true.
I'm sure there are people who believe they can envision an immovable object meeting an irresistible force. They do not possess a special ability, they are merely in error.
Our ordinary laws of physics would govern all matter except one or more places deep in the brain, where the laws of physics would be violated where the soul is "pulling the strings" of the body, as it were. These deviations from physics would not happen unlawfully, but rather would be governed by special, complicated laws of psychology, rather than physics.

The matter always obeys the laws of physics, because the laws of physics describe how matter acts. The laws would simply be more complex than you had anticipated.

What conditions are necessary for your "special laws" to apply? By what mechanisms does substance interact with spirit?

You can patch any model by introducing new, special-purpose premises that cause the model to match the observations, but what good is that?

You can redefine words so that any assertion about reality is correct, but what good is that? What use is it to say that the Eucharist transforms wine into blood, and bread into flesh, if you have to redefine 'blood' and 'flesh' in the process of speaking?

Replies from: Strange7
comment by Strange7 · 2011-01-20T18:54:59.612Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

I'm sure there are people who believe they can envision an immovable object meeting an irresistible force. They do not possess a special ability, they are merely in error.

The roleplaying game "Exalted" by White Wolf game studio has rules for what happens when an unstoppable force hits an immovable object, as part of a coherent, detailed cosmology where that kind of thing happens on a regular basis. At certain scales, from certain perspectives, it resembles our own world.

Replies from: Blueberry
comment by Blueberry · 2011-01-20T19:50:48.933Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

The roleplaying game "Exalted" by White Wolf game studio has rules for what happens when an unstoppable force hits an immovable object

This is like saying there are game rules for what happens when a player draws a square circle.

Regardless of the game rules, both of those objects can't exist in the same world. Either the object wasn't immovable or the force wasn't unstoppable.

Replies from: TheOtherDave, ArisKatsaris
comment by TheOtherDave · 2011-01-20T20:04:27.449Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

Or, far more likely, both.

comment by ArisKatsaris · 2011-04-22T01:22:31.411Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

Regardless of the game rules, both of those objects can't exist in the same world. Either the object wasn't immovable or the force wasn't unstoppable.

What if they pass through each other? Then the one doesn't move, and the other doesn't stop.

Replies from: Blueberry
comment by Blueberry · 2012-03-25T01:00:21.750Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

Mind. Blown.

Replies from: gjm
comment by gjm · 2015-12-07T15:54:22.047Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

The usual formulation has "irresistible" rather than "unstoppable" and I always took it that (1) "irresistible force" means something that substantially affects everything it interacts with, (2) "immovable object" means something on which no force has a substantial effect, and (3) "meets" means "interacts with in the way forces in this general class interact with objects in this general class".

So if they "pass through each other", that means the object remained immovable but the force wasn't in this case irresistible.

(It's an amusing answer, though.)

Replies from: satt
comment by satt · 2015-12-09T00:38:57.004Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

The usual formulation has "irresistible" rather than "unstoppable"

You forgot the citation!

comment by mtraven · 2008-09-12T17:03:32.000Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

@poke (i think you posted in the wrong thread) -- if you did a survey, limited to scientists, and asked questions like "is general relativity largely correct?', or 'Does DNA encode genes?', you would get near-100% agreement. If you asked 'is atheism true?', you would get a much lower number. Therefore, whatever opinions or arguments might seem convincing to you personally, atheism is not the strongest modern scientific result.

As ought to be obvious, statements about god are not scientific statements. You will not find peer-reviewed scientific literature proving or disproving the existence of god. God is a topic of endless of fascination on the fringes of science, which include philosophy, blogs like this one and popular books written by scientists, but is largely absent from the literature of actual science, for good reason.

If god is not a natural being, then science does not have the means to say whether it exists or not. It is not even clear what "exists" means for such entities. You can say that it makes no sense to talk about non-natural, non-material entities in any way, but as I pointed out before, we do it all the time for mathematical entities and I assume nobody here has a problem with that.

I find atheist fundamentalists amusing, because they are so certain that they know what "god" means, just like religious fundamentalists. Most sane and intelligent people with religious tendencies (and there are many, although they don't seem to get much press) understand that if "god" means anything, it is a pointer towards something unknown and perhaps unknowable, and arguing about whether it exists in the physical sense is missing the point completely.

Replies from: AndyCossyleon
comment by AndyCossyleon · 2010-08-06T21:03:44.632Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

Good post. For a question to receive a specific answer, it must be itself specific. "Does God exist?" is not a specific question and can therefore not receive a specific yes/no/dunno answer. "Does Yahweh exist?" on the other hand, is quite specific and requires the equally specific answer of "No."

Replies from: orthonormal
comment by orthonormal · 2010-08-06T21:11:44.990Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

There are some perfectly well-defined generalizations, for instance "Was our portion of this universe designed in detail by an intelligent mind?"

(Of course, I take the Simulation Hypothesis seriously enough to answer either "Maybe" or "Yes and No", though further well-defined questions do distinguish between that hypothesis and more traditionally theist ones.)

comment by Caledonian2 · 2008-09-12T17:28:39.000Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

You can say that it makes no sense to talk about non-natural, non-material entities in any way, but as I pointed out before, we do it all the time for mathematical entities and I assume nobody here has a problem with that.
Mathematical entities are not non-natural or non-material.

Why do you say that you find people who are certain they know what 'god' means amusing, then make it clear that you believe you know what 'god' means? Do you find yourself amusing, then, and in error?

comment by Matthew_C.2 · 2008-09-12T17:41:02.000Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

One of the strongest lines of evidence is, indeed, that we have successfully reduced minds. . .

Just what exactly are you referring to here?

comment by billswift · 2008-09-12T17:59:16.000Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

"Mind as an irreducible simple is basic to all monotheistic religions." - poke

That is a wonderful definition of religion. And I think it covers all religions, not just monotheistic, which is why it could be so useful. Most definitions of religion have trouble covering the non-theistic versions, such as Buddhism and Jainism, which yours does cover. ("Mind as an irreducible simple" would be required to make their reincarnation systems work.)

Atheists don't know what god means - it is meaningless.

Replies from: MaxNanasy
comment by MaxNanasy · 2016-12-10T04:45:58.027Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

AIUI the mind being something other than an irreducible entity is a fundamental principle of Buddhism (this is part of the anatta ("not-self") concept)

comment by steven · 2008-09-12T18:20:11.000Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

God is a shapeshifting horror from the outer beyond that constantly adapts its properties to whatever is most convenient given the argument currently being considered.

comment by Tim_Tyler · 2008-09-12T18:26:01.000Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

The dictionary doesn't specify that. Often it won't make much difference (assuming our understanding of physics is pretty good), and other times it would be clear from the context ("the ancients would have regarded human flight as supernatural").

The point is that "supernatural" has an established meaning that is supported well by the etymology of the word. I don't see much of a case for attempting to redefine the term it to mean something relatively arcane which the etymology gives no indication of.

comment by poke · 2008-09-12T19:04:49.000Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

mtraven,

Most sane and intelligent people with religious tendencies (and there are many, although they don't seem to get much press) understand that if "god" means anything, it is a pointer towards something unknown and perhaps unknowable, and arguing about whether it exists in the physical sense is missing the point completely.

This is just a version of my second option available to the theist. There's a knowable "physical" world and an unknowable one beyond it. There's no reason to believe this is the case. Moreover, if you believed something like this, you would be able to say "I'm an atheist about the physical world" and we could all agree on that and discuss whether talk of "something beyond the physical world" is coherent. You would also agree that science has established atheism about the physical world. Which is just my claim.

Matthew C. - I'm referring to neuroscience.

comment by mtraven · 2008-09-12T19:40:03.000Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

Mathematical entities are material? Do tell. What are they made of? How do you determine their position and mass? Why do you say that you find people who are certain they know what 'god' means amusing, then make it clear that you believe you know what 'god' means?

I thought I made it clear that I don't, but my apologies if I expressed myself in too subtle a fashion for you.

Let me try again. People deploy the term "god" in different ways and mean different things by it. I'm distinguishing two different broad classes of meaning. One set of meanings, employed by both religious fundamentalists and atheist fundamentalists, posits a god that acts in various ways that contradict the findings of science. This is not a meaning that I myself am interested in, for what I hope are obvious reasons. The other kind of meaning, employed by people who are sane, intelligent, and nevertheless religious, means something else that is hard to define, certainly hard to define in the context of a blog flamewar, but does not contradict the findings of science.

Despite the squishiness of this second set of meanings, it is an undeniably true fact that there are many practicing scientists who have religious beliefs of that sort, such as Francis Collins. So the social facts demonstrate that religion and science are not inherently incompatible, no matter how much they seem so to you.

I myself am not very religious at all, but I find it a lot more interesting to take religious statements (or discourse from other fields that I am not conversant with) and try to imagine what it is that they could be true of, rather than dismissing them as nonsense.

Do you find yourself amusing, then, and in error? Quite often, to both parts of your question.

comment by Arosophos (Lincoln_Cannon) · 2008-09-12T20:20:58.000Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

Eliezer, your characterization of religion is not generally accurate, as evidenced by the fact that not all religious persons posit an irreducibly complex God. As one example, Mormons posit a material God that became God through organizing existing matter according to existing laws.

On the other hand, I wonder, do you attribute irreducible complexity to quarks?

comment by James_Forrest · 2008-09-12T22:46:38.000Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

So... is the idea here, that creationism could be true, but even if it were true, you wouldn't be >>allowed to teach it in science class, because science is only about "natural" things?

If god(s) exist and (s)he/they/it created the universe and we possessed irrefutable evidence for both of those things, then s(he)/they/it would be "natural", and so, yes, you would be allowed to teach this in science class in that case.

Let me try again. People deploy the term "god" in different ways and mean different things by it.

There are in fact three definitions I am aware of:

(1) Theist - god(s) interfere in the world today and listen when we do stuff like "pray", (2) Deist - god(s) created the world at the beginning, but no longer actively interfere after than point, and (3) Pantheist - god(s) are a metpahor for a concept like "mother nature" or "the laws of physics".

comment by Douglas_Knight3 · 2008-09-13T04:02:21.000Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

Phil Goetz, could you elaborate on the psychology of mythical creatures? That some creatures are "spiritual" sounds to me like a plausible distinction. I count vampires, but not unicorns. To me, a unicorn is just another chimera. Why do you think they're more special than mermaids? magic powers? How much of a consensus do you think exists?

comment by Caledonian2 · 2008-09-13T17:58:37.000Z · LW(p) · GW(p)
means something else that is hard to define, certainly hard to define in the context of a blog flamewar, but does not contradict the findings of science.

The findings of science are almost irrelevent. The means justify the ends. The usage of concepts that are not clearly and properly defined is incompatible with scientific methodology, and thus incompatible with science.

No sane, rational, and sufficiently-educated person puts forward arguments incompatible with science.

Replies from: DilGreen
comment by DilGreen · 2010-10-13T00:49:26.781Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

No sane, rational, and sufficiently-educated person puts forward arguments incompatible with science.

The problem with this statement is that it puts 99.999% of everyone 'beyond the pale'. It disallows meaningful conversations about things which have huge functional impacts on all humans, but about which science has little of use or coherence to say. It cripples conversation about things which our current science deems impossible, without allowing for the certainty that key aspects of what is currently accepted science will be superseded in the future.

In other words, it is an example of a reasonable sounding thing to say that is almost perfectly useless. You have argued yourself into a box.

I would suggest that no sane, rational and sufficiently-educated person ascribes zero probability to irrational seeming propositions.

comment by mtraven · 2008-09-14T01:04:57.000Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

poke: There's a knowable "physical" world and an unknowable one beyond it. There's no reason to believe this is the case.

How would you know? Surely there are a great many things that are unknown and unknowable. The idea that it constitutes a separate "world" is your phrase, not mine.

Moreover, if you believed something like this, you would be able to say "I'm an atheist about the physical world" and we could all agree on that and discuss whether talk of "something beyond the physical world" is coherent.

Er, no. You make the mistake of supposing that this "unknowable world" is just like our own but disconnected from it. Again, I return to my analogy to mathematical objects and the world of Platonic ideals that they exist in. There's a non-physical "world", vastly different from the physical world yet intimately involved with it. If the spiritual concepts have any reality at all, it's got to be something like that.

So, if anyone is still interested in talking about this, how about breaking down this idea into two parts:

  • standard mathematical Platonism (not a settled truth, but usually considered the default position in philosophy of mathematics)
  • my tentative analogy between mathematical objects and supernatural entities

Feel free to disagree or question either of these parts, but at least say which one you are disagreeing with.

Replies from: bigjeff5
comment by bigjeff5 · 2011-02-03T23:22:03.091Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

How would you know? Surely there are a great many things that are unknown and unknowable. The idea that it constitutes a separate "world" is your phrase, not mine.

I don't know if there is cake in the asteroid belt, and given current technology such a thing is, at this time, unknowable. That doesn't give credence to the absurd notion that there is cake in the asteroid belt. I have no reason to believe this is the case.

The "supernatural" is a whole lot more complicated and a whole lot less discoverable than cake.

comment by frelkins · 2008-09-14T02:30:08.000Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

@mtraven

"- my tentative analogy between mathematical objects and supernatural entities"

By the Chair of Jacob Klein! That part. Right there. No. The Eide are not that. The Eide are what thinking thinks about, the Forms (Eide) the Mind (Nous) Shines (phaino) Upon. They are "seen" only in the light of the intellect. Supernatural entities - I guess you mean ghosts or souls or such - are not. . .ack! English sucks sometimes. . .

This is very difficult, as English doesn't have good terms to equal the Greek. German might be better. WTF. Ghosts and souls are not objects of the intellect, people assert they are things, albeit not like the things of phusis (nature).

Actually, this isn't really the best place to discuss Plato - maybe it would be better to just refresh yourself with Meno & Parmenides, but since you seem interested in physics and number, maybe go with Timaeus.

Surely it is clear however, if one is going to groove with this beat, that mathematical entities are grasped by thought, or revealed purely by thought, or are phenomena (with that root in phaino) of pure intellect; they do not "go bump in the night" nor are they "reincarnated."

comment by mtraven · 2008-09-14T16:49:06.000Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

Frelkins -- thanks for the references. I am pretty philosophically illiterate and it wouldn't surprise me at all to find out that I'm reinventing stuff that has been around for thousands of years.

I did not mean to imply that supernatural entities are identical in every way to mathematical entities; I'm just using mathematical entities as a club to beat up a certain sort of simple-minded materialism. It turns out that even science geeks talk about immaterial entities all the time. That's interesting.

You are right, this is probably not the place to discuss these idea, but I wanted to drop two more bits if anybody is still reading:

No less a mathematician than Kurt Gödel spent part of his later years coming up with formal proofs of the existence of God. I personally am not impressed by this proof, but it shows that working too long with the foundations of mathematics can lead one in strange directions.

Another is this web site, Religious Naturalism, which is a sort of clearinghouse for versions of spirituality and religion that are compatible with science.

comment by Phil_Goetz5 · 2008-10-06T23:02:40.000Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

could you elaborate on the psychology of mythical creatures? That some creatures are "spiritual" sounds to me like a plausible distinction. I count vampires, but not unicorns. To me, a unicorn is just another chimera. Why do you think they're more special than mermaids? magic powers? How much of a consensus do you think exists?
Sorry I missed this!

I think it may have to do with how heavy a load of symbolism the creature carries. Unicorns were used a lot to symbolize purity, and acquired magical and non-magical properties appropriate to that symbolism. Dragons, vampires, and werewolves are also used symbolically. Mermaids, basilisks, not so much. Centaurs have lost their symbolism (a Greek Apollo/Dionysus dual-nature-of-man thing, I think), and CS Lewis did much to destroy the symbolism associated with fauns by making them nice chaps who like tea and dancing.

Now that I think about it, Lewis and Tolkien both wrote fantasy that was very literal-minded, and replaced symbolism with allegory.

comment by Jim_Hill · 2009-02-21T04:36:54.000Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

To Phil, who asked for a definition of "vampire":

A vampire is a person possessed by the lust for vengeance. That spirit is notably difficult to kill or banish. The young and innocent are particularly susceptible. Once you invite it into your home, it can always return. Of those completely possessed by it, one can say "on reflection, there's no one there". It thrives in the unexamined dark and cannot abide the full light of day.

comment by [deleted] · 2009-08-17T21:29:10.411Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

This post seems to be saying this:

"Our universe is reductionist. [Other reasoning.] Therefore, we cannot imagine what a non-reductionist universe would be like."

If we cannot imagine what a non-reductionist universe would be like, it is impossible to come to the conclusion that our universe is reductionist.

comment by pdf23ds · 2010-05-17T13:59:43.573Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

I remember, when first reading this article, that it was really convincing and compelling. I looked it up again because I wanted to be able to make the argument myself, and now I find that I don't understand how you can get from "if the staid conventional normal boring understanding of physics and the brain is correct" to "there's no way in principle that a human being can concretely envision, and derive testable experimental predictions about, an alternate universe in which things are irreducibly mental." That seems like too large a jump for me. Any help?

comment by Sniffnoy · 2010-07-27T22:02:24.485Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

I have to wonder if your characterization of people who deny reductionism is really correct. I agree most of them are probably confused and do not have a coherent model in the first place - certainly actual non-reductionism is a confusion - but I'm not certain all of them are confused in the way you say.

From my experience it seems that the claims of the people who deny "reductionism" could be coherently understood if we assume that they are actually confused about what reductionism actually consists of, and that they are not denying actual reductionism, just one particular version of it that they are imagining the term necessarily refers to.

E.g. if we assume that they are simply saying that in some cases, the irreducible components of the universe are complicated rather than simple, and that the lowest level is something that appears to be "high level", then this is, though almost certainly wrong, at least coherent. It is also technically reductionist, albeit possibly trivially so (worst case: entire universe is a giant lookup table). But they don't think of it as reductionism as it doesn't much resemble what they're used to seeing called by that name.

Indeed I would go so far as to say that the people who deny reductionism are very often the same people who are implicitly making the mistake of greedy reductionism! They fail to think in terms of interactions of components, of actual systems, and so make the mistake of inferring angry atoms. They do reduce things, it's just that they reduce everything to supernatural things that can only interact via some sort of superposition principle. This pretty much fails at predicting anything, but it is at least coherent.

I don't know, does this make sense?

Replies from: TheOtherDave
comment by TheOtherDave · 2010-11-12T18:45:51.012Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

Mm. It makes sense, but I don't think it's on-point.

Up to a point, I agree with you. The Bohr model of the atom posits a lowest-level description that appears to us now to be "high-level", as you say, but it would not be fair to dismiss Bohr as a denier of reductionism on that basis. Similarly, if 22nd-century physics demonstrates that our current ontology is similarly confused, and there is a yet-more-parsimonious explanation that is consistent with observed data, it would not be fair to claim we deny reductionism.

It's unfair precisely because it elides the difference between (on the one hand) not being able to analyze something in terms of its component parts and (on the other) rejecting in principle any such analysis.

EY seems to be talking here about people who do the latter... who would deny that anything explainable could be their God, whatever surface properties it turned out to have. You seem to be talking about both groups at once.

To put this a different way... suppose Alice, Bob, and Cindy all worship a dryad, who is either Tiiba's dryad or an analog made of quarks, and a scientist comes along to determine which it is. Alice insists that studying the dryad's composition isn't possible/permitted. Bob confidently predicts that the dryad will all be whitestuff. Cindy shrugs and doesn't care; she makes the choice to worship based on surface-level considerations that don't depend on whether it's quarks or whitestuff.

Alice and Bob both make supernatural claims. Cindy isn't making a supernatural claim at all, by this post's definitions.

You argue that Bob is just claiming that some irreducible components are complicated, and the dryad happens to be one of them, and that this is perfectly compatible with reductionism (albeit perhaps trivially so)... even if Bob doesn't call himself a reductionist.

And that's true enough, as far as it goes. Bob is also admitting that his supernatural claim is testable and falsifiable by scientific research.

Meanwhile, Alice claims "separate magisteria."

As far as I can tell, the argument of EY's post relates exclusively to Alice.

comment by RobinLionheart · 2011-04-18T17:28:06.676Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

Reminds me of Conversational Atheist posting that “Christians rarely realize the very real problem that arises for them once “supernatural explanations” are on the table”. Allowing them opens the floodgates to all sorts of alternative explanations for miracles.

comment by Rixie · 2013-04-05T12:19:39.263Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

I'm sorry for posting such a pointless comment, but how do we change how the comments are sorted? I can see a Sort By: Old thing above the comments, but nothing happens when I click on it. Is there somewhere I can change settings, or something?
Thank you.

Replies from: TheOtherDave
comment by TheOtherDave · 2013-04-09T15:32:10.376Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

I think what's going on here is that older posts simply don't have this feature enabled, I assume because the feature depends on the comments having been stored in a particular way. Recent posts have a "Sort By: " menu there.

comment by timujin · 2013-11-10T11:01:42.711Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

If the "boring view" of reality is correct, then you can never predict anything irreducible because you are reducible. You can never get Bayesian confirmation for a hypothesis of irreducibility, because any prediction you can make is, therefore, something that could also be predicted by a reducible thing, namely your brain.

Some boxes you really can't think outside. If our universe really is Turing computable, we will never be able to concretely envision anything that isn't Turing-computable—no matter how many levels of halting oracle hierarchy our mathematicians can talk about, we won't be able to predict what a halting oracle would actually say, in such fashion as to experimentally discriminate it from merely computable reasoning.

I don't quite understand this one. How does "you are reducible" imply "you cannot conceive anything nonreducible"? Human beings with their merely Turing-complete brains can understand the concept of a non-Turing-computable problems. If our universe turns out to be more than Turing computable, and aliens give us a box that can map an integer to an integer by a non-computable function together with a verbal description of the function (say, "N -> busy-beaver(N)"), we will be able to use it, and understand what it does and why it is useful. Even though we will not be able to predict the exact outputs without a similar box, we could conceive what would the output look like ("like an integer bigger than X and smaller than Y"). Correspondingly, I see no impossibility in that a reducible brain can imagine what a non-reducible universe would look like.

Say, suppose there is a universe made of three types of things: ghosts, transistors and billiard balls. Transistors and billiard balls can form structures that compute functions up to primitive recursive. Billiard balls can interact with ghosts and transistors, acting as an interface between two. Ghosts can directly interact only with billiard balls. Every ghost observes the state of billiard balls around itself every five seconds and outputs one of actions: haunt, spook or wail, that affect the billiard balls in some way. The computation performed by a ghost is Turing-complete, but not primitive recursive. Thus, ghosts can never be reduced to transistors and billiard balls. Creatures made of transistors can observe billiard balls and infer the existence of ghosts. They will obviously not be able to form a complete model of a ghost, but they could make statistical observations about them. They could form primitive recursive statements, such as "a ghost spooks 50% of the time regardless of billiard balls around, except if it was surrounded by four balls in pyramidal pattern 5 seconds ago, in which case it always haunts". These statements will not describe the entire behavior of a ghost, but they will be conceivable, imaginable and detectable by transistor-creatures. And it, I suppose, is a probable thought that can occur to a transistor-creature - "what if ghosts are not computable?" (in their definition of computability that is merely primitive recursive).

In the same way, I see no trouble in visualizing a world which is just like ours, but contains a non-reducible-to-quarks, non-computable (by my definition of computability that is merely Turing computable) ghost that reads the state of quarks and produces a behavior that is outside of the box I'm thinking in. It will be my problem, not Universe's.

Replies from: None
comment by [deleted] · 2013-11-10T13:24:51.530Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

There's a difference between an existence proof and a constructive proof. We can talk about existence proofs for, "Here's what happens when we hook a magical Halting Oracle to a Turing Machine and run certain programs." We do not have any constructive proof of how a Halting Oracle would behave.

Just because you can say, "Imagine we had a thing with these properties" doesn't mean you know how to build such a thing.

comment by MarsColony_in10years · 2015-03-22T14:58:01.625Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

If our universe really is Turing computable, we will never be able to concretely envision anything that isn't Turing-computable

Sure we can. We can use a Turing complete language to program a crappier, non-Turing complete language that runs within our existing Turing complete framework. You've described how to convince you that 1+1=3, after all.

Suppose that a 747 had a fundamental physical existence apart from the quarks making up the 747.

What experimental observations would you expect to make, if you found yourself in such a universe?

Well, for starters, we'd have physicists building supercolliders to try to break 747's into smaller, constituent particles. If 747's were irreducible, they'd fail every time.

If the fundamentally irreducible components of conscious beings were large, say the mind itself, then human brains would have no “moving parts”, no thoughts to interact with each other. We wouldn't be able to form new or different thoughts. We wouldn't be able to learn, or grow, or change our minds. We'd just exist, eternally and unchanging.

If the fundamentally irreducible components were thoughts, then we would only see a relatively small set number of possible thoughts. We'd see the part of the brain that dealt with that specific thought light up whenever we had that particular thought. Human brains would have to be much larger in order to accommodate a usefully large giant look-up-table of thoughts. Each thought would also have an irreducible physical form, and would interact with other thoughts and the physical world through a the laws of physics, which would also contain fundamental mathematical laws about how thoughts interacted.

If the mind had fundamentally irreducible components that were combined to make up thoughts, then all cultures would have different words for exactly the same words for those concepts. We could translate whatever words corresponded to irreducible components between languages with nothing lost in translation.

If the fundamentally irreducible components were slightly smaller than words, then we'd probably develop various phonemes to precisely correspond to these thoughts, and translation of complex concepts across languages would still have a lot of fidelity, although occasionally a language would need 3 or 4 words to express a combination of concepts that other languages had one single word for.

If the fundamentally irreducible components of thoughts were much, much smaller than thoughts, we'd see a fundamental particle inside each neuron of our brain, or perhaps replacing neurons. We'd have different laws of physics that dictated how these fundamental particles interacted to create thoughts.

comment by Ian Televan · 2021-04-01T13:15:22.102Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

If reductionism was wrong then I would expect reductionist approaches to be ineffective. Every attempt at gaining knowledge using a reductionist framework would fail do discover anything new, except by accident on very rare occasions. Or experiments would fail to replicate because the conservation of energy was routinely violated in unpredictable ways. 

Replies from: TAG
comment by TAG · 2021-04-01T14:34:40.740Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

Reductionism isnt something that has to be 100% true or 0% true. It can be something that works for some problems but not others.

Replies from: Ian Televan
comment by Ian Televan · 2021-04-05T00:20:20.592Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

Of course it doesn't work for problems where the objects in question are already fundamental and cannot be reduces any further. But that's what I meant in the original post - reductionist frameworks would fail to produce any new insights if we were already at the fundamental level.

Replies from: TAG
comment by TAG · 2021-04-05T01:23:27.030Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

Of course it doesn’t work for problems where the objects in question are already fundamenta

That's not the only exception.

Replies from: Ian Televan
comment by Ian Televan · 2021-04-05T12:21:18.816Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

Care to elaborate? Also, that's not really an exception, but a boundary - it's exactly what you would expect if there are finitely many layers of composition i.e. the world is not like an infinite fractal. 

Replies from: TAG
comment by TAG · 2021-04-07T00:58:05.263Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

Social construction is an exception to reductionism.

A lot of things could be used as physical currency. Leaves are a bad choice, but things ranging from cowrie shells to obsidian shards have been used. You can't tell what money is by examining it microscopically...in fact that';s an problem in archaelogy, where some ancient artifacts remain mysterious despite high-tech investigation. But you can tell what money is by looking outward, at its function, at how it's used ... money is the thing that can be exchanged for any other thing.

And that kind of non-reductionism doesn't imply anything spooky ..banknotes arent immaterial entities.. and that is very much the point: you don't have to believe that in strict reductionism in order to be broadly reductionist or materialist.

Replies from: Ian Televan
comment by Ian Televan · 2021-04-07T14:29:26.358Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

Originally I thought of an exception where the thing that we don't know was a constructive question. e.g. given more or less complete knowledge or material science, how to we construct a decent bridge? But it's an obvious limitation, no self-proclaimed reductionist would actually try to apply reductionism in such situation.

It seems to me that you're describing a reverse scenario: suppose we have an already constructed object, and want to figure out how works - can reductionism still be used? I'd still say yes.

Take an airplane, for example. Knowing relevant laws of physics and looking at just the airplane, you can't actually say predict whether it's going to fly to New Your or Chicago. You need to incorporate the pilot into the model. And the pilot is influenced by human psychology, economics, etc. So on one hand you have the airplane as a concrete physical object, and one the other hand you have the role that airplanes of that type play in human society. BUT! By looking at just the physical properties, you can still infer a great deal about how it's used. 

This too applies to money. Physical manifestations are not actually completely arbitrary - they are either valuable in themselves - hides, grain, salt etc. or they have properties which make them suitable as value tokens - relatively durable and difficult to counterfeit either through scarcity of raw materials or difficulty in manufacturing. There is not as much to say about the physical properties of money compared to airplanes, but the difference is quantitative, not qualitative. 

So we're left with questions about human society. How do humans actually use these objects? Well, it's often impractical to apply reductionism but it's still possible in principle. We just don't know enough yet, or it would be computationally intractable, or it would be unethical etc. And of course, a lot has already been learned though application of reductionism to human psychology. 

Replies from: TAG
comment by TAG · 2021-04-07T16:20:03.352Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

You shouldn't ignore computational tractability, it's important.

It's not necessary to strenuously defend reductionism in order to "exclude the supernatural'.

comment by CronoDAS · 2023-11-12T05:59:06.710Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

So, I sort of randomly ended up at this old Sequences post, and I noticed something.

If the "boring view" of reality is correct, then you can never predict anything irreducible because you are reducible. You can never get Bayesian confirmation for a hypothesis of irreducibility, because any prediction you can make is, therefore, something that could also be predicted by a reducible thing, namely your brain.

I don't believe that "a reducible thing can't predict an irreducible thing" is necessarily correct. That part about Turing machines not being able to model oracle machines I did understand and agree with, but I know of no law of mathematics or physics that says that irreducible things must be uncomputable. I mean, if there actually is such a thing as a lowest level description of reality, it can't be reducible to something else because (by assumption) it's the lowest level description. So if electrons (or their corresponding quantum field) are irreducible (they're not made out of anything else, as far as I know), and people can predict the behavior of electrons, then a reducible brain can predict the behavior of an "irreducible" subatomic particle. Which, as far as I know, is actually true, and invalidates Eliezer's claim.

comment by TAG · 2023-11-27T18:53:32.734Z · LW(p) · GW(p)

By far the best definition I’ve ever heard of the supernatural is Richard Carrier’s: A “supernatural” explanation appeals to ontologically basic mental things, mental entities that cannot be reduced to nonmental entities.

Physicalism, materialism, empiricism, and reductionism are clearly similar ideas, but not identical. Carrier's criterion captures something about a supernatural ontology, but nothing about supernatural epistemology. Surely the central claim of natural epistemology is that you have to look...you can't rely on faith , or clear ideas implanted in our minds by God.

it seems that we have very good grounds for excluding supernatural explanations a priori

But making reductionism aprioristic arguably makes it less scientific...at least, what you gain in scientific ontology, you lose in scientific epistemology.

I mean, what would the universe look like if reductionism were false

We wouldn't have reductive explanations of some apparently high level phenomena ... Which we don't.

I previously defined the reductionist thesis as follows: human minds create multi-level models of reality in which high-level patterns and low-level patterns are separately and explicitly represented. A physicist knows Newton’s equation for gravity, Einstein’s equation for gravity, and the derivation of the former as a low-speed approximation of the latter. But these three separate mental representations, are only a convenience of human cognition. It is not that reality itself has an Einstein equation that governs at high speeds, a Newton equation that governs at low speeds, and a “bridging law” that smooths the interface. Reality itself has only a single level, Einsteinian gravity. It is only the Mind Projection Fallacy that makes some people talk as if the higher levels could have a separate existence—different levels of organization can have separate representations in human maps, but the territory itself is a single unified low-level mathematical object. Suppose this were wrong.

Suppose that the Mind Projection Fallacy was not a fallacy, but simply true.

Note that there are four possibilities here...

  1. I assume a one level universe, all further details are correct.

  2. I assume a one level universe, some details may be incorrect

  3. I assume a multi level universe, all further details are correct.

  4. I assume a multi level universe, some details may be incorrect.

How do we know that the MPF is actually fallacious, and what does it mean anyway?

If all forms of mind projection projection are wrong, then reductive physicalism is wrong, because quarks, or whatever is ultimately real, should not be mind projected, either.

If no higher level concept should be mind projected, then reducible higher level concepts shouldn't be ...which is not EY's intention.

Well, maybe irreducible high level concepts are the ones that shouldn't be mind projected.

That certainly amounts to disbelieving in non reductionism...but it doesn't have much to do with mind projection. If some examples of mind projection are acceptable , and the unacceptable ones coincide with the ones forbidden by reductivism, then MPF is being used as a Trojan horse for reductionism.

And if reductionism is an obvious truth , it could have stood on its own as apriori truth.

Suppose that a 747 had a fundamental physical existence apart from the quarks making up the 747. What experimental observations would you expect to make, if you found yourself in such a universe?

Science isn't 100% observation,it's a mixture of observation and explanation.

A reductionist ontology is a one level universe: the evidence for it is the success of reductive explanation , the ability to explain higher level phenomena entirely in terms of lower level behaviour. And the existence of explanations is aposteriori, without being observational data, in the usual sense. Explanations are abductive,not inductive or deductive.

As before, you should expect to be able to make reductive explanations of all high level phenomena in a one level universe....if you are sufficiently intelligent. It's like the Laplace's Demon illustration of determinism,only "vertical". If you find yourself unable to make reductive explanations of all phenomena, that might be because you lack the intelligence , or because you are in a non reductive multi level universe or because you haven't had enough time...

Either way, it's doubtful and aposteriori, not certain and apriori.

If you can’t come up with a good answer to that, it’s not observation that’s ruling out “non-reductionist” beliefs, but a priori logical incoherence"

I think I have answered that. I don't need observations to rule it out. Observations-rule it-in, and incoherence-rules-it-out aren't the only options.

People who live in reductionist universes cannot concretely envision non-reductionist universes.

Which is a funny thing to say, since science was non-reductionist till about 100 years ago.

One of the clinching arguments for reductionism.was the Schrödinger equation, which showed that in principle, the whole of chemistry is reducible to physics, while the rise of milecular biology showeds th rreducxibility of Before that, educators would point to the de facto hierarchy of the sciences -- physics, chemistry, biology, psychology, sociology -- as evidence of a multi-layer reality.

Unless the point is about "concretely". What does it mean to concretely envision a reductionist universe? Pehaps it means you imagine all the prima facie layers, and also reductive explanations linking them. But then the non-reductionist universe would require less envisioning, because byit's the same thing without the bridging explanations! Or maybe it means just envisioing huge arrays of quarks. Which you can't do. The reductionist world view , in combination with the limitations of the brain, implies that you pretty much have to use higher level, summarised concepts...and that they are not necessarily wrong.

But now we get to the dilemma: if the staid conventional normal boring understanding of physics and the brain is correct, there’s no way in principle that a human being can concretely envision, and derive testable experimental predictions about, an alternate universe in which things are irreducibly mental. Because, if the boring old normal model is correct, your brain is made of quarks, and so your brain will only be able to envision and concretely predict things that can predicted by quarks.

  1. "Your brain is made of quarks" is aposteriori, not apriori.

  2. Your brain being made of quarks doesn't imply anything about computability. In fact, the computatbolity of the ultimately correct version of quantum physics is an open question.

  3. Incomputability isn't the only thing that implies irreducibility, as @ChronoDas points out.

  4. Non reductionism is conceivable, or there would be no need to argue for reductionism.